Oh, how curious. I’ve been reading on here a while, and I think I had previously misunderstood the adopted meaning of the word “bias”… using the term as it’s socially used, that is to say, a prior reason for holding a certain belief over another due to convenience. A judge might be biased because one side is paying him; a jury member might be biased because their sister is the one on trial. Are these “mistakes”? Or do they fall under a certain type of cognitive bias that is similar among all humans? *ponder*
I would call a judge who is favoring a side because they’re paying him “biased”, and not “mistaken” or any such thing. But it’s not a cognitive bias. The word “bias” has legitimate meanings other than what EY is saying, so it would have been clearer if the article used the term “cognitive bias” at least at the outset.
I would argue a corrupt judge only seems biased as biased people in my understanding are not aware of their underlying preferences. That also might be the common ground with a cognitive bias: you are never directly aware of its presence and can only deduce on it by analysis.
You are confusing two definitions for the same word. The judge is biased by one definition of “bias”, but not by the other definition as used in cognitive or statistical bias.
Oh, how curious. I’ve been reading on here a while, and I think I had previously misunderstood the adopted meaning of the word “bias”… using the term as it’s socially used, that is to say, a prior reason for holding a certain belief over another due to convenience. A judge might be biased because one side is paying him; a jury member might be biased because their sister is the one on trial. Are these “mistakes”? Or do they fall under a certain type of cognitive bias that is similar among all humans? *ponder*
I would call a judge who is favoring a side because they’re paying him “biased”, and not “mistaken” or any such thing. But it’s not a cognitive bias. The word “bias” has legitimate meanings other than what EY is saying, so it would have been clearer if the article used the term “cognitive bias” at least at the outset.
I would argue a corrupt judge only seems biased as biased people in my understanding are not aware of their underlying preferences. That also might be the common ground with a cognitive bias: you are never directly aware of its presence and can only deduce on it by analysis.
You are confusing two definitions for the same word. The judge is biased by one definition of “bias”, but not by the other definition as used in cognitive or statistical bias.