I have refered to Unknown’s comment not because I thought you accepted asymptotic limit of cumulative disutility, but because this was providing the context in which the statement
there must exist some bad event such that no number of ever-so-slightly-less-bad events can be as bad as a finite number of the bad events
was made. The “original” bad event corresponds to a stubbed toe in the linked comment, something whose disutility is certainly finite. Infinite disutilities were mentioned nowhere in the debate and finite badness of the former event is also clear from that the latter event (finitely bad) is said to be “ever-so-slightly-less-bad” than the former.
The “original” bad event corresponds to a stubbed toe in the linked comment, something whose disutility is certainly finite.
If my view of logarithmic quantification for suffering is valid, then the stubbed-toe would be of vastly greater ‘anti-utilon’ quantity than the dust-speck in the eye; and torture that much moreso.
finite badness of the former event is also clear from that the latter event (finitely bad) is said to be “ever-so-slightly-less-bad” than the former.
That holds true and relevant under Unknown’s context and metrics, but not under mine; a stubbed-toe plus a dust-specking is “ever so slightly worse” than a stubbed-toe alone—but because this has no asymptotic limit, Unknown’s ‘counterintuitive result’ is irrelevant; it does not manifest.
If my view of logarithmic quantification for suffering is valid, then the stubbed-toe would be of vastly greater ‘anti-utilon’ quantity than the dust-speck in the eye; and torture that much moreso.
Is it meant to be a refutation of my claim that disutility of a stubbed toe is finite? Else, I don’t see the relevance.
Unknown’s ‘counterintuitive result’ is irrelevant; it does not manifest
Remember that originally you have written that it (more precisely Zack_M_Davis’s restatement of it) is not counter-intuitive, not that it is irrelevant. Irrelevance was never disputed.
I have refered to Unknown’s comment not because I thought you accepted asymptotic limit of cumulative disutility, but because this was providing the context in which the statement
was made. The “original” bad event corresponds to a stubbed toe in the linked comment, something whose disutility is certainly finite. Infinite disutilities were mentioned nowhere in the debate and finite badness of the former event is also clear from that the latter event (finitely bad) is said to be “ever-so-slightly-less-bad” than the former.
If my view of logarithmic quantification for suffering is valid, then the stubbed-toe would be of vastly greater ‘anti-utilon’ quantity than the dust-speck in the eye; and torture that much moreso.
That holds true and relevant under Unknown’s context and metrics, but not under mine; a stubbed-toe plus a dust-specking is “ever so slightly worse” than a stubbed-toe alone—but because this has no asymptotic limit, Unknown’s ‘counterintuitive result’ is irrelevant; it does not manifest.
Is it meant to be a refutation of my claim that disutility of a stubbed toe is finite? Else, I don’t see the relevance.
Remember that originally you have written that it (more precisely Zack_M_Davis’s restatement of it) is not counter-intuitive, not that it is irrelevant. Irrelevance was never disputed.