For example, Aristotle proved lots of stuff based on the infallibility of sensation, but since that’s a false premise, all that stuff was pointless.
Could you direct me to where Aristotle asserts that data from the senses are infallible? If I remember correctly, Aristotle defended a kind of virtue epistemology where sense data could only be trusted under very strict conditions and by someone virtuous enough (in rationality) to interpret the experiences correctly.
Could you direct me to where Aristotle asserts that data from the senses are infallible? If I remember correctly, Aristotle defended a kind of virtue epistemology where sense data could only be trusted under very strict conditions and by someone virtuous enough (in rationality) to interpret the experiences correctly.