Views about black people in the Islamic Golden Age were not the cause of views about black people in the nations participating in the transatlantic slave trade;
I never said they were. It’s possible that both views had a common cause, e.g., blacks actually being less intelligent.
Firstly, that explanation has a very low probability of being true. Even if we assume that important systematic differences in IQ existed for the relevant period, we are making a very strong claim when we say that slavery is a direct result of lower IQ. As you yourself point out, Arabs also historically enslaved Europeans; one might also observe that the Vikings did an awful lot of enslaving. Should we therefore conclude that the Nordic peoples are more intelligent than the Slavs and Anglo-Saxons?
Secondly, your objection now reduces to “other people in history were predjudiced against blacks, so modern prejudice is probably not a consequence of slavery”. Obviously it reduces the probability, but by a very small amount. Other people have also been angry with Bob; nevertheless, it remains extremely probable that I am angry because he just punched me.
Are you seriously trying to argue that the prejudice against blacks in Europe and the USA is not a consequence of the slave trade?
we are making a very strong claim when we say that slavery is a direct result of lower IQ.
I meant the views on black people.
Secondly, your objection now reduces to “other people in history were predjudiced against blacks, so modern prejudice is probably not a consequence of slavery”. Obviously it reduces the probability, but by a very small amount.
True, we better evidence that modern “prejudice” against blacks is due to the “prejudices” largely being accurate. Namely the fact that the prejudices are in fact accurate, in the sense that (whether because of nature or nurture) blacks are in fact less intelligent and more prone to criminality than whites.
Are you seriously trying to argue that the prejudice against blacks in Europe and the USA is not a consequence of the slave trade?
They are an indirect consequence of the slave trade in the sense that the slave trade resulted in large numbers of blacks in the United States (and also possibly contributed to the difference in intelligence).
I never said they were. It’s possible that both views had a common cause, e.g., blacks actually being less intelligent.
Firstly, that explanation has a very low probability of being true. Even if we assume that important systematic differences in IQ existed for the relevant period, we are making a very strong claim when we say that slavery is a direct result of lower IQ. As you yourself point out, Arabs also historically enslaved Europeans; one might also observe that the Vikings did an awful lot of enslaving. Should we therefore conclude that the Nordic peoples are more intelligent than the Slavs and Anglo-Saxons?
Secondly, your objection now reduces to “other people in history were predjudiced against blacks, so modern prejudice is probably not a consequence of slavery”. Obviously it reduces the probability, but by a very small amount. Other people have also been angry with Bob; nevertheless, it remains extremely probable that I am angry because he just punched me.
Are you seriously trying to argue that the prejudice against blacks in Europe and the USA is not a consequence of the slave trade?
I meant the views on black people.
True, we better evidence that modern “prejudice” against blacks is due to the “prejudices” largely being accurate. Namely the fact that the prejudices are in fact accurate, in the sense that (whether because of nature or nurture) blacks are in fact less intelligent and more prone to criminality than whites.
They are an indirect consequence of the slave trade in the sense that the slave trade resulted in large numbers of blacks in the United States (and also possibly contributed to the difference in intelligence).