I have not claimed a hidden source of morality, nor do I possess one, so you can rest easy on that score.
But deriving a rule, or a consistent set of rules, or a system of morality based on my moral intuitions and my knowledge of the world is different from deriving it based on my moral intuitions and nothing else, even if my knowledge of the world is not itself a source of morality.
Its better if you tell me what you think and I don’t have to guess. I don’t see how a moral intuition could ever even appear absent some knowledge of the world, these are feelings which arise in response to situations we find ourselves in and (at least we think) comprehending.
Ir your systematized morality is “better” than your non-systematized moral intuitions, please tell me, at least through examples,
1) How it is different and
2) How you know (or at least why you think) it is better.
I’m not asserting that moral intuitions can arise without any knowledge of the world.
But not all of my knowledge of the world plays a significant role in the formation of my moral intuitions, for various reasons, any more than all of my knowledge of the world plays a significant role in the formation of my physical and social intuitions.
And (as I’ve said repeatedly) taking all of that knowledge into account along with my moral intuitions when deriving moral rules can lead to a different set of rules than deriving those moral rules based on my intuitions and nothing else (as you initially framed the question).
1) How it is different and 2) How you know (or at least why you think) it is better.
As I said in the first place, the potential value of a systematized moral framework is that it can allow for consistent behavior across sets of situations where my intuitions are inconsistent, and some people value consistency.
If that’s not clear enough to preclude the need for guesswork, I apologize for the lack of clarity. If you have specific questions or challenges I’ll try to address them. If I’m just not making any sense at all, I’d prefer to drop this exchange here.
I have not claimed a hidden source of morality, nor do I possess one, so you can rest easy on that score.
But deriving a rule, or a consistent set of rules, or a system of morality based on my moral intuitions and my knowledge of the world is different from deriving it based on my moral intuitions and nothing else, even if my knowledge of the world is not itself a source of morality.
Its better if you tell me what you think and I don’t have to guess. I don’t see how a moral intuition could ever even appear absent some knowledge of the world, these are feelings which arise in response to situations we find ourselves in and (at least we think) comprehending.
Ir your systematized morality is “better” than your non-systematized moral intuitions, please tell me, at least through examples, 1) How it is different and 2) How you know (or at least why you think) it is better.
I’m not asserting that moral intuitions can arise without any knowledge of the world.
But not all of my knowledge of the world plays a significant role in the formation of my moral intuitions, for various reasons, any more than all of my knowledge of the world plays a significant role in the formation of my physical and social intuitions.
And (as I’ve said repeatedly) taking all of that knowledge into account along with my moral intuitions when deriving moral rules can lead to a different set of rules than deriving those moral rules based on my intuitions and nothing else (as you initially framed the question).
As I said in the first place, the potential value of a systematized moral framework is that it can allow for consistent behavior across sets of situations where my intuitions are inconsistent, and some people value consistency.
If that’s not clear enough to preclude the need for guesswork, I apologize for the lack of clarity. If you have specific questions or challenges I’ll try to address them. If I’m just not making any sense at all, I’d prefer to drop this exchange here.