It does. The infinite sum will always converge, so by normalizing we can make it converge to 1.
Take gjm’s approach to explaining the normalization, in which the initial weight of 2^-length assigned to a hypothesis is the probability that you obtain that hypothesis by choosing bits at random. Then the normalization is just a conditional probability: you divide by the probability that, when choosing bits at random, you do eventually end up hitting a hypothesis.
It does. The infinite sum will always converge, so by normalizing we can make it converge to 1.
Take gjm’s approach to explaining the normalization, in which the initial weight of 2^-length assigned to a hypothesis is the probability that you obtain that hypothesis by choosing bits at random. Then the normalization is just a conditional probability: you divide by the probability that, when choosing bits at random, you do eventually end up hitting a hypothesis.