Well, one aspect of this that I find amusing in a mildly infuriating way is the common sort of understanding of “atheism” that seems to be largely based on a rejection of what someone learned in their fifth grade Sunday School classes. Kathryn above makes exactly this point (although I’d claim that Buddhism makes specifically scientific claims: that following certain practices based on a certain understanding of the Nature of Things, leads to greater peace of mind and less suffering.) But then she nails it by noting that the claim that “religion” is invariably incompatible with tolerance of homosexuality is simply untrue, even among adherents of a religion in the Abrahamic tradition.
Just yesterday I was reading a well-recommended apologia that similarly claimed “religion” was incompatible with finding meaning in life from a sense of immanence, as opposed to transcendence. It wasn’t bad as an argument, but it depended on a statement of the meaning of “religion” that defined it in terms of transcendence, thereby excluding the various monist, animist, and pantheist traditions from American Indian religion to Shinto and Hinduism. One might charitably ascribe the circularity of argument to ignorance, instead of intellectual dishonesty, but either way it’s fatally flawed.
In any case, though, the underlying question appears to be either (1) can a literal interpretation of the claims of Old Testament miracles and cosmogony be seen as consistent with current scientific knowledge, or (2) is religious “knowledge” compatible, commesurable, with scientific “knowledge” in any way, or are they so different as to form completely distinct and separate magisteria?
The answer to (1) is, pretty clearly, mostly no. Why mostly? Because there are logically sustainable interpretations that could be “true”—they’re just ones that completely undercut the scientific mode of thought—like the notion that Deity would create the world in seven days, 6014 years ago, with built in fossils, pre-created illusions of distant galaxies, etc, so that the universe would be in all ways indistinguishable from one that around in a Big Bang tens of billions of years in the past. But that leads directly to the conclusion that the answer to (2) must be “yes”, by a Gödelian argument. A Superior Being who could do (1) --- which is inescapably true of any God capable of doing the Old Testament thing—must also, inescapably, be able to construct a universe in which any experimental verification of Its existence would be answered “no”, if that is Its wish. Similarly, such a Superior Being must be capable of constructing the universe in such a way that any attempted falsification of Its existence would fail.
But then, if A can neither be falsified by experiment, nor can its converse be falsified, it’s simply outside of the domain of “scientific” knowledge; it cannot be evaluated in scientific terms. Which is to say, it’s a separate magisterium. (Notice that this doesn’t say any statement in that separate magisterium is true. It’s just part of a different system.)
Could God make a universe where there was no evidence of him? Sure. But given such a universe, we have no reason to believe in God—because there’s no evidence of him, you just stipulated that.
Also, why would he? Doesn’t God want us to believe in him? Why then give us brains but not evidence?
Well, one aspect of this that I find amusing in a mildly infuriating way is the common sort of understanding of “atheism” that seems to be largely based on a rejection of what someone learned in their fifth grade Sunday School classes. Kathryn above makes exactly this point (although I’d claim that Buddhism makes specifically scientific claims: that following certain practices based on a certain understanding of the Nature of Things, leads to greater peace of mind and less suffering.) But then she nails it by noting that the claim that “religion” is invariably incompatible with tolerance of homosexuality is simply untrue, even among adherents of a religion in the Abrahamic tradition.
Just yesterday I was reading a well-recommended apologia that similarly claimed “religion” was incompatible with finding meaning in life from a sense of immanence, as opposed to transcendence. It wasn’t bad as an argument, but it depended on a statement of the meaning of “religion” that defined it in terms of transcendence, thereby excluding the various monist, animist, and pantheist traditions from American Indian religion to Shinto and Hinduism. One might charitably ascribe the circularity of argument to ignorance, instead of intellectual dishonesty, but either way it’s fatally flawed.
In any case, though, the underlying question appears to be either (1) can a literal interpretation of the claims of Old Testament miracles and cosmogony be seen as consistent with current scientific knowledge, or (2) is religious “knowledge” compatible, commesurable, with scientific “knowledge” in any way, or are they so different as to form completely distinct and separate magisteria?
The answer to (1) is, pretty clearly, mostly no. Why mostly? Because there are logically sustainable interpretations that could be “true”—they’re just ones that completely undercut the scientific mode of thought—like the notion that Deity would create the world in seven days, 6014 years ago, with built in fossils, pre-created illusions of distant galaxies, etc, so that the universe would be in all ways indistinguishable from one that around in a Big Bang tens of billions of years in the past. But that leads directly to the conclusion that the answer to (2) must be “yes”, by a Gödelian argument. A Superior Being who could do (1) --- which is inescapably true of any God capable of doing the Old Testament thing—must also, inescapably, be able to construct a universe in which any experimental verification of Its existence would be answered “no”, if that is Its wish. Similarly, such a Superior Being must be capable of constructing the universe in such a way that any attempted falsification of Its existence would fail.
But then, if A can neither be falsified by experiment, nor can its converse be falsified, it’s simply outside of the domain of “scientific” knowledge; it cannot be evaluated in scientific terms. Which is to say, it’s a separate magisterium. (Notice that this doesn’t say any statement in that separate magisterium is true. It’s just part of a different system.)
Could God make a universe where there was no evidence of him? Sure. But given such a universe, we have no reason to believe in God—because there’s no evidence of him, you just stipulated that.
Also, why would he? Doesn’t God want us to believe in him? Why then give us brains but not evidence?