Is the Hulatioamiltonian formulation of classical mechanics apriori more probable than the Lagrangian formn?
They are both derivable from the same source, Newtonian mechanics plus the ZF Set theory. They are equivalent and therefore equally probable.
The shortest possible version of them all—mutually equivalent theories—is the measure how (equally) probable are they.
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They are both derivable from the same source, Newtonian mechanics plus the ZF Set theory. They are equivalent and therefore equally probable.
The shortest possible version of them all—mutually equivalent theories—is the measure how (equally) probable are they.