Okay, thanks. However, based on what I know of the US, nearly any murder or other serious incident caught in the news where the races of the victim and the accused were different would practically always provoke a hysterical reaction wracked with all the usual American neuroses. There’s nothing exceptionally bad about this case’s handling that hasn’t been true for a very long while IMO.
(Well, except for pre-Civil War times, when things might have been a little less convoulted but positively flaunted the heuristics we now find disgusting; the mainstream wouldn’t stop for a moment before assigning guilt based on how non-Anglo-Saxon* a participant was, and the radical anti-racists would jump to the opposite conclusion, often in a patronizing “Uncle Tom” way. Can’t point to a specific case from which I got this picture, and you might be justified in calling it oversimplified, but I’m pretty sure that it’s not just a modern political caricature of the bad old times.)
-* Were the Southern whites also considered Anglo-Saxon in the broad sense? If no, what word did they use to separate themselves and e.g. the Irish/Eastern European immigrants or other “inferior” whites?
However, based on what I know of the US, nearly any murder or other serious incident caught in the news where the races of the victim and the accused were different would practically always provoke a hysterical reaction wracked with all the usual American neuroses.
There is plenty of counter evidence to this.
Even some stuff that would seem to have all the building blocks for media exposure and revenue generation, like say the recent case of a home invasion where a young man sexually assaults and kills a 85 year old woman and beats her husband to the point of him being hospitalized.
Huh? So… what do you think makes the difference between this case and the ones that failed to detonate? If your answer looks too mind-killing to you, please PM me.
However, based on what I know of the US, nearly any murder or other serious incident caught in the news where the races of the victim and the accused were different would practically always provoke a hysterical reaction wracked with all the usual American neuroses. There’s nothing exceptionally bad about this case’s handling that hasn’t been true for a very long while IMO.
Well, I am giving it as an example of standard and long-standing attitudes of the sort that Orwell described as “transferred nationalism,” not some novel phenomenon.
Well, how about, say, Germany or Canada? The racial issues are obviously less charged here, and not due to their especial monoethnicity - and it appears to me from outside view that while people there might be unimaginably biased on other issues, they are at least more polite, less prone to contagnious hysteria and just have a higher sanity waterline as communities.
There are several reasons for why the prestige press is so fundamentalist in its fervor to stereowipe… The third is ideology: knowledge is evil. The fourth is the sheer will to power.
Sorry, but I think this is too partisan and arational (has Sailer even tried to imagine what his “enemies” think and believe before professing that they are basically Stalin and O’Brien?) to quote on LW. You could’ve just linked to the post.
Okay, thanks. However, based on what I know of the US, nearly any murder or other serious incident caught in the news where the races of the victim and the accused were different would practically always provoke a hysterical reaction wracked with all the usual American neuroses. There’s nothing exceptionally bad about this case’s handling that hasn’t been true for a very long while IMO.
(Well, except for pre-Civil War times, when things might have been a little less convoulted but positively flaunted the heuristics we now find disgusting; the mainstream wouldn’t stop for a moment before assigning guilt based on how non-Anglo-Saxon* a participant was, and the radical anti-racists would jump to the opposite conclusion, often in a patronizing “Uncle Tom” way. Can’t point to a specific case from which I got this picture, and you might be justified in calling it oversimplified, but I’m pretty sure that it’s not just a modern political caricature of the bad old times.)
-* Were the Southern whites also considered Anglo-Saxon in the broad sense? If no, what word did they use to separate themselves and e.g. the Irish/Eastern European immigrants or other “inferior” whites?
There is plenty of counter evidence to this.
Even some stuff that would seem to have all the building blocks for media exposure and revenue generation, like say the recent case of a home invasion where a young man sexually assaults and kills a 85 year old woman and beats her husband to the point of him being hospitalized.
Huh? So… what do you think makes the difference between this case and the ones that failed to detonate? If your answer looks too mind-killing to you, please PM me.
Man bites dog partially explains it.
Well, I am giving it as an example of standard and long-standing attitudes of the sort that Orwell described as “transferred nationalism,” not some novel phenomenon.
Well, how about, say, Germany or Canada? The racial issues are obviously less charged here, and not due to their especial monoethnicity - and it appears to me from outside view that while people there might be unimaginably biased on other issues, they are at least more polite, less prone to contagnious hysteria and just have a higher sanity waterline as communities.
I think Steve Sailer does a good job of analysing this.
Sorry, but I think this is too partisan and arational (has Sailer even tried to imagine what his “enemies” think and believe before professing that they are basically Stalin and O’Brien?) to quote on LW. You could’ve just linked to the post.
Good point, fixed the post.