Just 8% of violent crimes are committed by someone visibly armed with a gun.
1) What fraction of people are visibly armed with a gun?
2) Does that simply result in concentrating the criminals onto the other 92%?
EDITED TO EXPLAIN: I misread this as committed [i]against[/i] someone visibly armed. So this was extra-confusing. Of course, I should have noticed that and gone back and been more careful.
1) What fraction of people are visibly armed with a gun?
2) Does that simply result in concentrating the criminals onto the other 92%?
EDITED TO EXPLAIN: I misread this as committed [i]against[/i] someone visibly armed. So this was extra-confusing. Of course, I should have noticed that and gone back and been more careful.
1) Almost zero, of course. How should that affect our interpretation of that fact?
I don’t understand what you mean by the second question.