Are you sure that this hypothesis makes no observable predictions?
For one of many possible predictions, I ask whether the tunneling is truly independent of the arrangement of matter and energy in the area. If there is some arrangement that makes it more possible, we should see effects from it. Exotic matter physics experiments seem like a good candidate to create such. Perhaps high energy particle collisions, or Bose-Einstein condensates, or negative temperature quantum gases, Ccassimir effect setups, or something else.
If those experiments, when successful, decrease the measure of their resultant universe, we should expect to see them fail more often than normal.
So, a proposed test: set up an experimental apparatus that flips a quantum coin, and then either performs or doesn’t perform the experiment in question. You expect to see the “not performed” result with p > 0.5 in your recorded data.
Of course, the effect may be very weak at that scale, if it “only” reduces the measure of the universe by a factor of 10^12 per second across the entire universe. You might have trouble getting enough of the measure from your experiment to detect something.
(Also, a minor nitpick: the per-microsecond discount rate should be about 0.0028%, as 1.000028^(1E6) ~= 1E12.)
That test only works if you take quantum measure as probability in the first place.
Are you certain of that? In what other way do you interpret measure that produces a different anticipated experience in this situation? Is there a good article that explains this topic?
Unless I’m missing something, it doesn’t matter whether we take measure as probability or not, there will be an asymmetry in the measure between the experiment performed and experiment not performed pathways, when there would not be in the normal quantum coin case. Or are you saying that while the quantum measure is different in the different pathways, we have no way to measure it? If so, then what do you actually mean by quantum measure, given that we can’t measure it? (Or is there some other way to measure it, that somehow can’t be turned into a similar experimental test?) And, if we can’t measure it or any effects from it, why do we believe it to be “real”? What causal pathway could possibly connect to our beliefs about it?
That test only works if you take quantum measure as probability in the first place.
From the article:
None of these assumptions make any difference [...]
Then later go on to offer biting the probability = measure bullet as one possible response. This indicated to me that the quoted statement was intended to be taken as independent of whether you bit that particular bullet.
Are you sure that this hypothesis makes no observable predictions?
For one of many possible predictions, I ask whether the tunneling is truly independent of the arrangement of matter and energy in the area. If there is some arrangement that makes it more possible, we should see effects from it. Exotic matter physics experiments seem like a good candidate to create such. Perhaps high energy particle collisions, or Bose-Einstein condensates, or negative temperature quantum gases, Ccassimir effect setups, or something else.
If those experiments, when successful, decrease the measure of their resultant universe, we should expect to see them fail more often than normal.
So, a proposed test: set up an experimental apparatus that flips a quantum coin, and then either performs or doesn’t perform the experiment in question. You expect to see the “not performed” result with p > 0.5 in your recorded data.
Of course, the effect may be very weak at that scale, if it “only” reduces the measure of the universe by a factor of 10^12 per second across the entire universe. You might have trouble getting enough of the measure from your experiment to detect something.
(Also, a minor nitpick: the per-microsecond discount rate should be about 0.0028%, as 1.000028^(1E6) ~= 1E12.)
That test only works if you take quantum measure as probability in the first place.
Urg! Annoying mishap. I will correct it before you have time to read this response.
Are you certain of that? In what other way do you interpret measure that produces a different anticipated experience in this situation? Is there a good article that explains this topic?
Unless I’m missing something, it doesn’t matter whether we take measure as probability or not, there will be an asymmetry in the measure between the experiment performed and experiment not performed pathways, when there would not be in the normal quantum coin case. Or are you saying that while the quantum measure is different in the different pathways, we have no way to measure it? If so, then what do you actually mean by quantum measure, given that we can’t measure it? (Or is there some other way to measure it, that somehow can’t be turned into a similar experimental test?) And, if we can’t measure it or any effects from it, why do we believe it to be “real”? What causal pathway could possibly connect to our beliefs about it?
From the article:
Then later go on to offer biting the probability = measure bullet as one possible response. This indicated to me that the quoted statement was intended to be taken as independent of whether you bit that particular bullet.