Your own Wikipedia link seems to be quite clear that this right did exist at certain times in certain cultures.
Interestingly enough, Wikipedia states “There is no evidence of the alleged right in medieval Europe”, but as support links to Britannica which says a very different thing: “The custom is paralleled in various primitive societies, but the evidence of its existence in Europe is all indirect.”
Your own Wikipedia link seems to be quite clear that this right did exist at certain times in certain cultures.
I am not claiming that it never existed anywhere. Merely, that it very likely didn’t exist (as a common practice) in the European Middle Ages.
Interestingly enough, Wikipedia states “There is no evidence of the alleged right in medieval Europe”, but as support links to Britannica which says a very different thing: “The custom is paralleled in various primitive societies, but the evidence of its existence in Europe is all indirect.”
The text is behind a paywall, so I don’t know what indirect evidence they refer to, but the only evidence I’ve seen is hearsay from Enlightenment thinkers that otherwise had a track record of making exaggerated or outright false claims about the Middle Ages.
Your own Wikipedia link seems to be quite clear that this right did exist at certain times in certain cultures.
I didn’t deny that it existed “at certain times in certain cultures.” I am denying that is existed in Medieval Europe, which is why I wrote ”...the droit du seigneur is just more made-up bullshit to defame the medievals.”
Your own Wikipedia link seems to be quite clear that this right did exist at certain times in certain cultures.
Interestingly enough, Wikipedia states “There is no evidence of the alleged right in medieval Europe”, but as support links to Britannica which says a very different thing: “The custom is paralleled in various primitive societies, but the evidence of its existence in Europe is all indirect.”
I am not claiming that it never existed anywhere. Merely, that it very likely didn’t exist (as a common practice) in the European Middle Ages.
The text is behind a paywall, so I don’t know what indirect evidence they refer to, but the only evidence I’ve seen is hearsay from Enlightenment thinkers that otherwise had a track record of making exaggerated or outright false claims about the Middle Ages.
I didn’t deny that it existed “at certain times in certain cultures.” I am denying that is existed in Medieval Europe, which is why I wrote ”...the droit du seigneur is just more made-up bullshit to defame the medievals.”