I would guess that humans’ nightmarish experience in concentration camps was usually better than nonexistence; and even if you suspect this is false, it seems easy to imagine how it could be true, because there’s a lot more to human experience than ‘pain, and beyond that pain, darkness’. It feels like a very open question in the human case.
When you say that it could be true, do you mean that it could be true that the person themselves would judge their experience as better than nonexistence?
(Your paragraph reads to me as implying that there could be some more objective answer to this separate from a person’s own judgment of it, but it’s hard for me to imagine what that would even mean.)
When you say that it could be true, do you mean that it could be true that the person themselves would judge their experience as better than nonexistence?
(Your paragraph reads to me as implying that there could be some more objective answer to this separate from a person’s own judgment of it, but it’s hard for me to imagine what that would even mean.)