Would this then disallow out-of-court settlements? e.g. Uber settling a wrongful death case with cash.
Edit: Upon further reflection, it would only apply to the criminal case, not the civil case.
It seems like you’re describing banning trade of knowledge of crimes. This is distinct from blackmail, which has to do with an asymmetry between offer direction (by Hansons definition).
Would this then disallow out-of-court settlements? e.g. Uber settling a wrongful death case with cash.
Edit: Upon further reflection, it would only apply to the criminal case, not the civil case.
It seems like you’re describing banning trade of knowledge of crimes. This is distinct from blackmail, which has to do with an asymmetry between offer direction (by Hansons definition).