Or at least it should be; I’m reasonably confident that you only use s’ for plural possessives; singular nouns that end in s have a possessive form ending in s’s.
I’ve had this claim go both ways. I had at least one history teacher in highschool who strongly argued for this rule applying only to plural possessives. As with many rules, consistency matters more than anything else. I think that only applying it to plurals makes more sense (in that the distinction there actually helps you keep track of the number of the word) but it seems that nowadays it is more common for people to use s’ construction for any word ending in s.
It’s Bayes’ theorem, not Baye’s theorem :).
No, it’s Bayes’s theorem.
Or at least it should be; I’m reasonably confident that you only use s’ for plural possessives; singular nouns that end in s have a possessive form ending in s’s.
Personally, I always write “Bayes’s”. But since I was citing Wikipedia, I didn’t want to muddy waters further by not using their convention.
I’ve had this claim go both ways. I had at least one history teacher in highschool who strongly argued for this rule applying only to plural possessives. As with many rules, consistency matters more than anything else. I think that only applying it to plurals makes more sense (in that the distinction there actually helps you keep track of the number of the word) but it seems that nowadays it is more common for people to use s’ construction for any word ending in s.
Thanks, fixed. One day I’ll internalize that ;)
Also, “You’re calculator works great in binary” should be “Your calculator...”
Fixed, Thanks!