In the mid-1900s, the norms of good citizenship were richer and more powerful than today.
Is that true? Certainly for discriminated minorities, it doesn’t appear to be true. I would find it very difficult to argue that “norms of good citizenship” were stronger in 1950 towards, say, a black person, or a homosexual, or a (suspected) Communist than they are today.
Is that true? Certainly for discriminated minorities, it doesn’t appear to be true. I would find it very difficult to argue that “norms of good citizenship” were stronger in 1950 towards, say, a black person, or a homosexual, or a (suspected) Communist than they are today.