This is just an argument over the definition of the phrase “bounded rationality”. Let’s call these two definitions BR1 and BR2. The definition that timtyler, Kahnemann and Tversky, and I are using is BR1; the definition that you, curi, and David Deutsch use is BR2.
BR1 means “rationality that is performed using a finite amount of resources”. Think of this as bounded-resource rationality. All rationality done in this universe is BR1, by definition, because you only get a limited amount of time and memory to think about things. This definition does not contain any claims about what sort of knowledge BR1 can or can’t generate. A detailed theory of BR1 would say things like “solving this math problem requires at least 10^9 operations”. More commonly, people refer to BR1 to distinguish it from things like AIXI, which is a mathematical construct that can theoretically figure out anything given sufficient data, but which is impossible to construct because it contains several infinities. A mind with universal reasoning is BR1 if it only has a finite amount of time to do it in.
BR2 means “rationality that can generate some types of knowledge, but not others”. Think of this as bounded-domain rationality. Whether this exists at all depends on what you mean by “knowledge”. For example, if you have a computer program that collects seismograph data and predicts earthquakes, you might say it “knows” where earthquakes will occur; this would make it a BR2. If you say that this sort of thing doesn’t count as knowledge until a human reads it from a screen or printout, then no BR2s exist.
BR1 is a standard concept, but as far as I know BR2 is unique to Deutsch’s book Beginning of Infinity. BR1 exists, tautologically from its definition. Whether BR2 exists or not depends on how you define some other things, but personally I don’t find BR2 illuminating so I see no reason to take a stance either way on it.
I’m pretty sure there’s a similar issue with the definition of “induction”. I know of at least two definitions relevant to epistemology, but neither of them seems to make sense in context so I suspect that Deutsch has come up with a third. Could you explain what Deutsch uses the word induction to mean? I think that would clear up a great deal of confusion.
This is just an argument over the definition of the phrase “bounded rationality”. Let’s call these two definitions BR1 and BR2. The definition that timtyler, Kahnemann and Tversky, and I are using is BR1; the definition that you, curi, and David Deutsch use is BR2.
BR1 means “rationality that is performed using a finite amount of resources”. Think of this as bounded-resource rationality. All rationality done in this universe is BR1, by definition, because you only get a limited amount of time and memory to think about things. This definition does not contain any claims about what sort of knowledge BR1 can or can’t generate. A detailed theory of BR1 would say things like “solving this math problem requires at least 10^9 operations”. More commonly, people refer to BR1 to distinguish it from things like AIXI, which is a mathematical construct that can theoretically figure out anything given sufficient data, but which is impossible to construct because it contains several infinities. A mind with universal reasoning is BR1 if it only has a finite amount of time to do it in.
BR2 means “rationality that can generate some types of knowledge, but not others”. Think of this as bounded-domain rationality. Whether this exists at all depends on what you mean by “knowledge”. For example, if you have a computer program that collects seismograph data and predicts earthquakes, you might say it “knows” where earthquakes will occur; this would make it a BR2. If you say that this sort of thing doesn’t count as knowledge until a human reads it from a screen or printout, then no BR2s exist.
BR1 is a standard concept, but as far as I know BR2 is unique to Deutsch’s book Beginning of Infinity. BR1 exists, tautologically from its definition. Whether BR2 exists or not depends on how you define some other things, but personally I don’t find BR2 illuminating so I see no reason to take a stance either way on it.
I’m pretty sure there’s a similar issue with the definition of “induction”. I know of at least two definitions relevant to epistemology, but neither of them seems to make sense in context so I suspect that Deutsch has come up with a third. Could you explain what Deutsch uses the word induction to mean? I think that would clear up a great deal of confusion.