Then it sounds like the blackmailer in question spent $0 on perpetrating the blackmail
No, that’s not what I said (and is false). To estimate the cost you have to compare the outcome of the legal case to the counterfactual baseline in which there was no blackmail happening on the side (that baseline is not zero), and you have to include other costs besides lawyers.
To estimate the cost you have to compare the outcome of the legal case to the counterfactual baseline in which there was no blackmail happening on the side (that baseline is not zero)
Seems wrong to me. Opportunity cost is not the same as expenditures.
and you have to include other costs besides lawyers.
No, that’s not what I said (and is false). To estimate the cost you have to compare the outcome of the legal case to the counterfactual baseline in which there was no blackmail happening on the side (that baseline is not zero), and you have to include other costs besides lawyers.
Seems wrong to me. Opportunity cost is not the same as expenditures.
Alright, and what costs were there?
Sorry, this isn’t a topic where I want to discuss with someone who’s being thick in the way that you’re being thick right now. Tapping out.