You apparently don’t think it’s self evident that induction works. Do you think that it’s self evident that deduction works (like Descartes did)? If you do, why? If you met someone who was willing to accept the premises of a deductive argument but not the conclusion, like the tortoise in this parable, how would you convince the person they were wrong? The only way to do it would be using deductive arguments, but that’s circular! So it seems that deductive arguments are just as “unjustifiable” as inductive arguments.
But if you reject deductive arguments as well, then you can’t do anything. Even if you start with self-evident premises, you won’t be able to conclude anything from them. Perhaps this is a hint that your standards for justification are so high that they’re effectively useless.
A premise isn’t self-evident because anybody whatsoever would accept it, but because it must be true in any possible universe.
Deductive arguments aren’t self-evident, but for a different reason than you think- the Evil Demon Argument, which shows that even if it looks completely solid it could easily be mistaken. There may be some way to deal with it, but I can’t think of any. That’s why I came here for ideas.
You claim my standards of justification are too high because you want to rule skepticism out- you are implicitly appealing to the fact skepticism results as a reason for me to lower my standards. Isn’t that bias against skepticism, lowering standards specifically so it does not result?
There are all kinds of things that are true in every possible universe that aren’t self-evident. Look up “necessary a posteriori” for examples. So no, self-evident is not the same as necessary, at least not according to a very popular philosophical approach to possible worlds (Kripke’s). More generally, “necessity” is a metaphysical property, and “self-evidence” is an epistemic property. Just because a proposition has to be true does not mean it is going to be obvious to me that it has to be true. Even Descartes makes this distinction. He doesn’t regard all the truths of mathematics to be self-evident (he says he may be mistaken about their derivation), but presumably he does not disagree that they are necessarily true. (Come to think of it, he may disagree that they are necessarily true, given his extreme theological voluntarism, but that’s an orthogonal debate.)
As for your question about standards: I think it is a very plausible principle that “ought” implies “can”. If I (or anyone else) have an obligation to do something, then it must at least be possible for me to do it. So, in so far as I have a rational obligation to have justified beliefs, it must be possible for me to justify my beliefs. If you’re using the word “justification” in a way that renders it impossible for me to justify any belief, then I cannot have any obligation to justify my beliefs in that sense. And if that’s the case, then skepticism regarding that kind of justification has no bite. Sure, my beliefs aren’t justified in that rigorous sense, but if I have no rational obligation to justify them, why should I care?
So either you’re using “justification” in a sense that I should care about, in which case your standards for justification shouldn’t be so high as to render it impossible, or you’re using “justification” in Descartes’s highly rigorous sense, in which case I don’t see why I should be worried, since rationality cannot require that impossible standard of justification. Either way, I don’t see a skeptical problem.
It seems we’re using different definitions of words here. Maybe I should clarify a bit.
The definition of rationality I use (and I needed to think about this a bit) is a set of rules that must, by their nature, correlate with reality. Pragmatic considerations do not correlate with reality, no matter how pressing they may seem.
Rather than a rational obligation, it is a fact that if a person is irrational then they have no reason to believe that their beliefs correlate with the truth, as they do not. It is merely an assumption they have.
You apparently don’t think it’s self evident that induction works. Do you think that it’s self evident that deduction works (like Descartes did)? If you do, why? If you met someone who was willing to accept the premises of a deductive argument but not the conclusion, like the tortoise in this parable, how would you convince the person they were wrong? The only way to do it would be using deductive arguments, but that’s circular! So it seems that deductive arguments are just as “unjustifiable” as inductive arguments.
But if you reject deductive arguments as well, then you can’t do anything. Even if you start with self-evident premises, you won’t be able to conclude anything from them. Perhaps this is a hint that your standards for justification are so high that they’re effectively useless.
A premise isn’t self-evident because anybody whatsoever would accept it, but because it must be true in any possible universe.
Deductive arguments aren’t self-evident, but for a different reason than you think- the Evil Demon Argument, which shows that even if it looks completely solid it could easily be mistaken. There may be some way to deal with it, but I can’t think of any. That’s why I came here for ideas.
You claim my standards of justification are too high because you want to rule skepticism out- you are implicitly appealing to the fact skepticism results as a reason for me to lower my standards. Isn’t that bias against skepticism, lowering standards specifically so it does not result?
There are all kinds of things that are true in every possible universe that aren’t self-evident. Look up “necessary a posteriori” for examples. So no, self-evident is not the same as necessary, at least not according to a very popular philosophical approach to possible worlds (Kripke’s). More generally, “necessity” is a metaphysical property, and “self-evidence” is an epistemic property. Just because a proposition has to be true does not mean it is going to be obvious to me that it has to be true. Even Descartes makes this distinction. He doesn’t regard all the truths of mathematics to be self-evident (he says he may be mistaken about their derivation), but presumably he does not disagree that they are necessarily true. (Come to think of it, he may disagree that they are necessarily true, given his extreme theological voluntarism, but that’s an orthogonal debate.)
As for your question about standards: I think it is a very plausible principle that “ought” implies “can”. If I (or anyone else) have an obligation to do something, then it must at least be possible for me to do it. So, in so far as I have a rational obligation to have justified beliefs, it must be possible for me to justify my beliefs. If you’re using the word “justification” in a way that renders it impossible for me to justify any belief, then I cannot have any obligation to justify my beliefs in that sense. And if that’s the case, then skepticism regarding that kind of justification has no bite. Sure, my beliefs aren’t justified in that rigorous sense, but if I have no rational obligation to justify them, why should I care?
So either you’re using “justification” in a sense that I should care about, in which case your standards for justification shouldn’t be so high as to render it impossible, or you’re using “justification” in Descartes’s highly rigorous sense, in which case I don’t see why I should be worried, since rationality cannot require that impossible standard of justification. Either way, I don’t see a skeptical problem.
It seems we’re using different definitions of words here. Maybe I should clarify a bit.
The definition of rationality I use (and I needed to think about this a bit) is a set of rules that must, by their nature, correlate with reality. Pragmatic considerations do not correlate with reality, no matter how pressing they may seem.
Rather than a rational obligation, it is a fact that if a person is irrational then they have no reason to believe that their beliefs correlate with the truth, as they do not. It is merely an assumption they have.