Sure, but I found the analogy useful because it is literally the exact same thing. Both draw a line between a certain mechanism and a broader principle with which it appears to clash if the mechanism were applied universally. Both then claim that the principle is very well established and that they do not need to condescend to address my theory unless I completely debunk the principle, even though the theory is very straightforward.
I was sort of hoping that he would see it for himself, and do better. This is a rationality site after all; I don’t think that’s a lot to ask.
You clearly expect estimator to agree that the other arguments are fallacious. And yet estimator clearly believes that zir argument is not fallacious. To assert that they are literally the same thing, that they are similar in all respects, is to assert that estimator’s argument is fallacious, which is exactly the matter under dispute. This is begging the question. I have already explained this, and you have simply ignored my explanation.
All the similarities that you cite are entirely irrelevant. Simply noting similarities between an argument, and a different, fallacious argument, does nothing to show that the argument in question is fallacious as well, and the fact that you insist on pretending otherwise does not speak well to your rationality.
Estimator clearly believes that there is no way that creating simulations can affect whether we are in a simulation. You have presented absolutely no argument for why it can. Instead, you’ve simply declared that your “theory” is “straightforward”, and that disagreeing is unacceptable arrogance. Arguing that your “theory” violates a well-established principled is addressing your “theory”. So apparently, when you write “do not need to condescend to address my theory”, what you really mean is “have failed to present a counterargument that I have deigned to recognize as legitimate”.
Sure, but I found the analogy useful because it is literally the exact same thing. Both draw a line between a certain mechanism and a broader principle with which it appears to clash if the mechanism were applied universally. Both then claim that the principle is very well established and that they do not need to condescend to address my theory unless I completely debunk the principle, even though the theory is very straightforward.
I was sort of hoping that he would see it for himself, and do better. This is a rationality site after all; I don’t think that’s a lot to ask.
You clearly expect estimator to agree that the other arguments are fallacious. And yet estimator clearly believes that zir argument is not fallacious. To assert that they are literally the same thing, that they are similar in all respects, is to assert that estimator’s argument is fallacious, which is exactly the matter under dispute. This is begging the question. I have already explained this, and you have simply ignored my explanation.
All the similarities that you cite are entirely irrelevant. Simply noting similarities between an argument, and a different, fallacious argument, does nothing to show that the argument in question is fallacious as well, and the fact that you insist on pretending otherwise does not speak well to your rationality.
Estimator clearly believes that there is no way that creating simulations can affect whether we are in a simulation. You have presented absolutely no argument for why it can. Instead, you’ve simply declared that your “theory” is “straightforward”, and that disagreeing is unacceptable arrogance. Arguing that your “theory” violates a well-established principled is addressing your “theory”. So apparently, when you write “do not need to condescend to address my theory”, what you really mean is “have failed to present a counterargument that I have deigned to recognize as legitimate”.