His assertion is that if you scanned the brain of a victim 50 or 500 years ago you’d find the same amount of subjective “oppressed feeling” as scanning a modern victim, i.e., that people have an “oppression set point” similar to the happiness set point.
Well, 500 years ago there was plenty of brutal physical oppression going on, and I’d expect that kind of thing to have lots of other negative effects on top of the first-order emotional reactions of the victims.
But I would claim that if you did a big brain-scan survey of, say, Western women from 1970 to the present, you’d see very little correlation between their subjective feeling of oppression and their actual treatment in society.
That wasn’t ewbrownv’s assertion.
His assertion is that if you scanned the brain of a victim 50 or 500 years ago you’d find the same amount of subjective “oppressed feeling” as scanning a modern victim, i.e., that people have an “oppression set point” similar to the happiness set point.
Well, 500 years ago there was plenty of brutal physical oppression going on, and I’d expect that kind of thing to have lots of other negative effects on top of the first-order emotional reactions of the victims.
But I would claim that if you did a big brain-scan survey of, say, Western women from 1970 to the present, you’d see very little correlation between their subjective feeling of oppression and their actual treatment in society.