As far as I can see, the experiment has shown that what was considered to be the lower bound is actually not.
However I don’t understand how the claim of “no lower bound at all” necessarily follows. For all we know there is just a different, lower (lower bound).
As far as I can see, the experiment has shown that what was considered to be the lower bound is actually not.
However I don’t understand how the claim of “no lower bound at all” necessarily follows. For all we know there is just a different, lower (lower bound).
I found it odd as well but I think it’s because it implies that the theoretical reason for that lower bound may be invalid.
There’s likely going to turn out to be a different theoretical lower bound for some other reason but right now we don’t have that theoretical reason.