I was all set to ask whether the result of female groups’ increased conformity had any explanatory power over the question of why there aren’t more woman in the rationalist movement. Then as I read on, it became less likely that female psychology had anything to do with it. Rather, in-group vs out-group psychology did. Males, being the socially more privileged gender, are more likely to see themselves as ‘just normal’ rather than part of a particular group called ‘males’.
Of course, this lends itself to predictions. In a given grouping that self-identifies strongly as that grouping (such as woman, minority ethnicities, etc), if that group is very into a particular subject, its members will also likely be into it. Whereas, with a group that is less likely to self identify (such as American Caucasians, Americans within American borders (but not abroad) and men) the conformity on interests will be less.
Have there been any studies done to test this minority vs majority group conformity idea?
I’m not upset about losing points for this post, but I am a bit confused about it. Many out there know more about this stuff than I do. Did I say something factually inaccurate or engage in bad reasoning? I want to know so that I don’t repeat my mistake.
Your first paragraph mentions a highly contested thesis that you admit is irrelevant to the evidence. Your second paragraph seems to assert that dominant groups do not strongly-self identify—which seems empirically false—consider spontaneous chants of “USA, USA, USA”
Also, you are using some quasi-technical jargon less precisely than the terms are usually used—and your misuses seem to be directed at supporting a particular ideological position.
But that’s just the sense of someone who probably has a contrary ideological position, so I’m not sure how I would recommend you generalizing from my impression. (and the downvote is gone at the moment I’m writing this—was it just one? Just ignore those if you can’t figure them out.)
I had suspected that it might be because someone had tried to infer my position on such matters from my asking of the question and didn’t like the implication. I did, after all, admit to including the thesis that ‘the observed high conformance of a group of females is influenced by an aspect of female psychology’ in my list of possible explanations for the high conformance in that group, even though I ended up rejecting that hypothesis.
(I suspect that your position viz a viz whether either gender is superior is not that different than my own. But to be clear, my position is that both genders possess great capacity for type 2 cognition, which is the most important measurement of human success. Any difference between healthy adults of either gender in their use of such cognition comes down to social factors, which can be changed to create a fairer society.)
I’m still surprised about the second paragraph’s inaccuracy, though. In my experience, the chants of “USA, USA, USA” occur at sporting matches against other countries. That’s not an ‘internal to America’ thing. Then again, I don’t live in America and haven’t for many years. I chose America because I was trying to cater my words to my audience. Perhaps that was wrong and I should have spoken from experience instead. (I’m Australian.)
I want to use every word accurately, so I would be most appreciative if you could give me a few examples of jargon I’ve used and a description (or link to one) of the way it should actually be used.
Thanks,
Avi
PS—Yes. It was just one vote, so maybe I got re-upvoted or something. Oh well. The experienced alerted me to an issue. That’s all anyone could ask of it.
I was all set to ask whether the result of female groups’ increased conformity had any explanatory power over the question of why there aren’t more woman in the rationalist movement. Then as I read on, it became less likely that female psychology had anything to do with it. Rather, in-group vs out-group psychology did. Males, being the socially more privileged gender, are more likely to see themselves as ‘just normal’ rather than part of a particular group called ‘males’.
Of course, this lends itself to predictions. In a given grouping that self-identifies strongly as that grouping (such as woman, minority ethnicities, etc), if that group is very into a particular subject, its members will also likely be into it. Whereas, with a group that is less likely to self identify (such as American Caucasians, Americans within American borders (but not abroad) and men) the conformity on interests will be less.
Have there been any studies done to test this minority vs majority group conformity idea?
I’m not upset about losing points for this post, but I am a bit confused about it. Many out there know more about this stuff than I do. Did I say something factually inaccurate or engage in bad reasoning? I want to know so that I don’t repeat my mistake.
Your first paragraph mentions a highly contested thesis that you admit is irrelevant to the evidence. Your second paragraph seems to assert that dominant groups do not strongly-self identify—which seems empirically false—consider spontaneous chants of “USA, USA, USA”
Also, you are using some quasi-technical jargon less precisely than the terms are usually used—and your misuses seem to be directed at supporting a particular ideological position.
But that’s just the sense of someone who probably has a contrary ideological position, so I’m not sure how I would recommend you generalizing from my impression. (and the downvote is gone at the moment I’m writing this—was it just one? Just ignore those if you can’t figure them out.)
Ah.
I had suspected that it might be because someone had tried to infer my position on such matters from my asking of the question and didn’t like the implication. I did, after all, admit to including the thesis that ‘the observed high conformance of a group of females is influenced by an aspect of female psychology’ in my list of possible explanations for the high conformance in that group, even though I ended up rejecting that hypothesis.
(I suspect that your position viz a viz whether either gender is superior is not that different than my own. But to be clear, my position is that both genders possess great capacity for type 2 cognition, which is the most important measurement of human success. Any difference between healthy adults of either gender in their use of such cognition comes down to social factors, which can be changed to create a fairer society.)
I’m still surprised about the second paragraph’s inaccuracy, though. In my experience, the chants of “USA, USA, USA” occur at sporting matches against other countries. That’s not an ‘internal to America’ thing. Then again, I don’t live in America and haven’t for many years. I chose America because I was trying to cater my words to my audience. Perhaps that was wrong and I should have spoken from experience instead. (I’m Australian.)
I want to use every word accurately, so I would be most appreciative if you could give me a few examples of jargon I’ve used and a description (or link to one) of the way it should actually be used.
Thanks, Avi
PS—Yes. It was just one vote, so maybe I got re-upvoted or something. Oh well. The experienced alerted me to an issue. That’s all anyone could ask of it.