So, did we already reach the point where it’s all relative and culture-dependent, and subculture-relevant, etc. and the difference between normative offense and subjective offense disappears into indistinguishability? :-)
I was using subjectively offensive to mean personally offensive; that is subjectively offensive relative to a person. Normatively offensive here means offensive relative to a group. So they are distinct. Does this clear it up? I’m getting quite confused here: are you a cultural relativist or do you believe that morality is individual?
So, did we already reach the point where it’s all relative and culture-dependent, and subculture-relevant, etc. and the difference between normative offense and subjective offense disappears into indistinguishability? :-)
I was using subjectively offensive to mean personally offensive; that is subjectively offensive relative to a person. Normatively offensive here means offensive relative to a group. So they are distinct. Does this clear it up? I’m getting quite confused here: are you a cultural relativist or do you believe that morality is individual?
I don’t fit into pigeonholes well :-)