I fail to see how this is evidence of Nonsecondorderizability of some possible sentences.
There is no known trick to encode all sentences expressible in higher-order logics into first-order logic, but there is such a trick to encode all sentences expressible in higher-order logics in second-order logic.
The trick in question is described in the SEP article. Doesn’t that suffice as a reference and starting point for studying the notion that second-order logic can encode higher-order logics?
I fail to see how this is evidence of Nonsecondorderizability of some possible sentences.
There is no known trick to encode all sentences expressible in higher-order logics into first-order logic, but there is such a trick to encode all sentences expressible in higher-order logics in second-order logic.
The trick in question is described in the SEP article. Doesn’t that suffice as a reference and starting point for studying the notion that second-order logic can encode higher-order logics?
i misread it XD trhanks for your help