I’m not quite sure I understand the problem with blueness as you see it.
Suppose nouroscience was advanced enough that it could manipulate your perception of colors in any arbitrary way just by manipulating your neurons. For example they could make you perceive blue as you previously perceived red and the other way round, induce synaesthesia and make you perceive the smell of roses, the taste of salt, the note C or other things as blue. They could change your perception of color completely, leaving your new perception of colors only as similar to your old one as that one was to your perception of smells, flavor or sounds. If all of this was true, would that be enough for you to accept that blueness is sufficiently explicable by the behaviour of neurons alone? Or would you argue that while neurons are enough to induce the sensation of blueness this sensation itself is still something beyond the mere behaviour of neurons?
Reposting my question from upthread:
I’m not quite sure I understand the problem with blueness as you see it.
Suppose nouroscience was advanced enough that it could manipulate your perception of colors in any arbitrary way just by manipulating your neurons. For example they could make you perceive blue as you previously perceived red and the other way round, induce synaesthesia and make you perceive the smell of roses, the taste of salt, the note C or other things as blue. They could change your perception of color completely, leaving your new perception of colors only as similar to your old one as that one was to your perception of smells, flavor or sounds. If all of this was true, would that be enough for you to accept that blueness is sufficiently explicable by the behaviour of neurons alone? Or would you argue that while neurons are enough to induce the sensation of blueness this sensation itself is still something beyond the mere behaviour of neurons?