Does the intent matter? Intended or not, Lord of the Rings has come to occupy a certain cultural position; surely it’s right to ask whether it’s fit for it, even if that position is not the one the original author intended?
I think that our culture is big enough to accommodate the literature of J. R. R. Tolkien and George R. R. Martin and Michael Moorcock; we as a society don’t really need to choose among them (although some individuals will obviously prefer one over another). Aumann’s theorem does not apply to literature; not all rational authors have to write identical styles of fiction.
Does the intent matter? Intended or not, Lord of the Rings has come to occupy a certain cultural position; surely it’s right to ask whether it’s fit for it, even if that position is not the one the original author intended?
I think that our culture is big enough to accommodate the literature of J. R. R. Tolkien and George R. R. Martin and Michael Moorcock; we as a society don’t really need to choose among them (although some individuals will obviously prefer one over another). Aumann’s theorem does not apply to literature; not all rational authors have to write identical styles of fiction.