You seem to have misunderstood the problem statement [1]. If you commit to doing “FDT, except that if the predictor makes a mistake and there’s a bomb in the Left, take Right instead”, then you will almost surely have to pay $100 (since the predictor predicts that you will take Right), whereas if you commit to using pure FDT, then you will almost surely have to pay nothing (with a small chance of death). There really is no “strategy that, if the agent commits to it before the predictor makes her prediction, does better than FDT”.
[1] Which is fair enough, as it wasn’t actually specified correctly: the predictor is actually trying to predict whether you will take Left or Right if it leaves its helpful note, not in the general case. But this assumption has to be added, since otherwise FDT says to take Right.
It sounds like you’re saying that I correctly understood the problem statement as it was written (but it was written incorrectly); but that the post erroneously claims that in the scenario as (incorrectly) written, FDT says to take Left, when in fact FDT in that scenario-as-written says to take right. Do I understand you?
But this assumption has to be added, since otherwise FDT says to take Right.
Why? FDT isn’t influenced in its decision by the note, so there is no loss of subjunctive dependence when this assumption isn’t added. (Or so it seems to me: I am operating at the limits of my FDT-knowledge here.)
You seem to have misunderstood the problem statement [1]. If you commit to doing “FDT, except that if the predictor makes a mistake and there’s a bomb in the Left, take Right instead”, then you will almost surely have to pay $100 (since the predictor predicts that you will take Right), whereas if you commit to using pure FDT, then you will almost surely have to pay nothing (with a small chance of death). There really is no “strategy that, if the agent commits to it before the predictor makes her prediction, does better than FDT”.
[1] Which is fair enough, as it wasn’t actually specified correctly: the predictor is actually trying to predict whether you will take Left or Right if it leaves its helpful note, not in the general case. But this assumption has to be added, since otherwise FDT says to take Right.
It sounds like you’re saying that I correctly understood the problem statement as it was written (but it was written incorrectly); but that the post erroneously claims that in the scenario as (incorrectly) written, FDT says to take Left, when in fact FDT in that scenario-as-written says to take right. Do I understand you?
Yes.
Why? FDT isn’t influenced in its decision by the note, so there is no loss of subjunctive dependence when this assumption isn’t added. (Or so it seems to me: I am operating at the limits of my FDT-knowledge here.)