If “greed” is defined as something like “behavior intended to increase one’s own wealth”, it seems that as long as a behavior has only one intent (which may not be the case), greed and “voluntary behavior intended to benefit another” are mutually exclusive by definition. However, if you care about whether it benefits others regardless of intent to do so, the answer may be quite different.
If “greed” is defined as something like “behavior intended to increase one’s own wealth”, it seems that as long as a behavior has only one intent (which may not be the case), greed and “voluntary behavior intended to benefit another” are mutually exclusive by definition. However, if you care about whether it benefits others regardless of intent to do so, the answer may be quite different.
google says that the definition of greed is “intense and selfish desire for something, esp. wealth, power, or food.”
Replace “behavior intended to increase one’s wealth” with that definition, then. Everything else I said still stands.