We generally imagine that it’s impossible to map the predictors net directly to an answer because the predictor is thinking in terms of different concepts, so it has to map to the humans nodes first in order to answer human questions about diamonds and such.
I see, thanks for answering. To further clarify, given the reporter’s only access to the human’s nodes is through the human’s answers, would it be equally likely for the reporter to create a mapping to some other Bayes net that is similarly consistent with the answers provided? Is there a reason why the reporter would map to the human’s Bayes net in particular?
The dataset is generated with the human bayes net, so it’s sufficient to map to the human bayes net. There is, of course, an infinite set of “human” simulators that use slightly different bayes nets that give the same answers on the training set.
We generally imagine that it’s impossible to map the predictors net directly to an answer because the predictor is thinking in terms of different concepts, so it has to map to the humans nodes first in order to answer human questions about diamonds and such.
I see, thanks for answering. To further clarify, given the reporter’s only access to the human’s nodes is through the human’s answers, would it be equally likely for the reporter to create a mapping to some other Bayes net that is similarly consistent with the answers provided? Is there a reason why the reporter would map to the human’s Bayes net in particular?
The dataset is generated with the human bayes net, so it’s sufficient to map to the human bayes net. There is, of course, an infinite set of “human” simulators that use slightly different bayes nets that give the same answers on the training set.