I typed too fast, and combined “free choice” and “uncaused action”. I don’t have a gears-level understanding of causality that admits of the BOTH predictability of decision, AND an algorithm that “decides which one to enact”. It seems to me that in order to be predictable, the decision has to be caused by some observable configuration BEFORE the prediction. That is, there is an upstream cause to the prediction and to the decision.
I typed too fast, and combined “free choice” and “uncaused action”. I don’t have a gears-level understanding of causality that admits of the BOTH predictability of decision, AND an algorithm that “decides which one to enact”. It seems to me that in order to be predictable, the decision has to be caused by some observable configuration BEFORE the prediction. That is, there is an upstream cause to the prediction and to the decision.