The expression “irrational values” sounds like a category mistake to me.
I’d be comfortable describing someone with a preference set that violates the axiom of quasi-transitivity as having “irrational values,” but certainly not for valuing a “self-perception as a person who” engages is some kind of activity, such as voting.
I’d be comfortable describing someone with a preference set that violates the axiom of quasi-transitivity as having “irrational values,” but certainly not for valuing a “self-perception as a person who” engages is some kind of activity, such as voting.
At a particular moment in time, right? There is nothing which says preferences have to be stable as time passes.