By “measures as” I mean as in what was the probability to experience exact this moment, from the set of all possible moments that “exists” (or can be experienced). And by “measures as 1” I mean, that if several physical “carriers” produces exact same experience, that counts as 1 experience in the grand total set of experiences, and probability to feel exactly that is 1/(count of all different experiences).
Now I know this is controversial and counter intuitive. But still this is quite plausible, given what we even know about consciousness. Like, if consciousness emerges on the level of algorithms and logic, then why would it care, how many physical things produces it? If one were asked, how many movies about human pretending to be blue alien on planet Pandora does he know, the answer would probably be 1 and not the number of digital Avatar copies ever made.
Hmm. I still think you need rigor in how you know what differences are important and which are ignored. There is no such thing as actually identical universe-states across branches, so you’re somehow collapsing different physical things into “same” experience.
If you asked how many movies does a person know on that, they’d likely say 1, because they’re collapsing all the copies, which vary only trivially. If you ask “what’s the probability that a randomly chosen disc in a used DVD store is Avatar”, then the ratio of individual copies matters.
The purpose and type of comparison matters a lot in determining whether distinct things are fungible.
To be clear, I totally get that two experiences can be indistinguishable as anticipation or memory for an entity. I’m just not sure why it matters when counting universe-states for the purposes of a probability estimate.
By “measures as” I mean as in what was the probability to experience exact this moment, from the set of all possible moments that “exists” (or can be experienced). And by “measures as 1” I mean, that if several physical “carriers” produces exact same experience, that counts as 1 experience in the grand total set of experiences, and probability to feel exactly that is 1/(count of all different experiences). Now I know this is controversial and counter intuitive. But still this is quite plausible, given what we even know about consciousness. Like, if consciousness emerges on the level of algorithms and logic, then why would it care, how many physical things produces it? If one were asked, how many movies about human pretending to be blue alien on planet Pandora does he know, the answer would probably be 1 and not the number of digital Avatar copies ever made.
Hmm. I still think you need rigor in how you know what differences are important and which are ignored. There is no such thing as actually identical universe-states across branches, so you’re somehow collapsing different physical things into “same” experience.
If you asked how many movies does a person know on that, they’d likely say 1, because they’re collapsing all the copies, which vary only trivially. If you ask “what’s the probability that a randomly chosen disc in a used DVD store is Avatar”, then the ratio of individual copies matters.
The purpose and type of comparison matters a lot in determining whether distinct things are fungible.
To be clear, I totally get that two experiences can be indistinguishable as anticipation or memory for an entity. I’m just not sure why it matters when counting universe-states for the purposes of a probability estimate.