In this case, the statement “every disputant is partly right and partly wrong” is affected by generalization. In that it is, er, a false generalization.
What do you mean “the statement is affected by a generalisation”? What does it mean for something to be “affected by a generalisation”? What does it mean for a statement to be “affected”?
The claim is a general one. Are general claims always false? I highly doubt that. That said, this generalisation might be false, but it seems like establishing that would require more than just pointing out that the claim is general.
Right. So calling it a “false generalization” needed two words.
Anyhow: Where does the sun go at night? How big is the earth? Is it harmful to market cigarettes to teenagers? Is Fermat’s last theorem true? Can you square the circle? Will heathens burn in hell for all eternity?
Er. What? You can call it a false generalisation all you like, that isn’t in itself enough to convince me it is false. (It may well be false, that’s not what’s at stake here). You seem to be suggesting that merely by calling it a generalisation is enough to impugn its status.
And in homage to your unconvential arguing style, here are some non sequituurs: How many angels can dance on the head of a pin? Did Thomas Aquinas prefer red wine or white wine? Was Stalin lefthanded? What colour were Sherlock Holmes’ eyes?
Suppose that I wanted to demonstrate conclusively that a generalization was false. I would have to provide one or more counterexamples. What sort of thing would be a counterexample to the claim “each party to all disputes that persist through long periods of time is partly right and partly wrong?” Well, it would have to be a dispute that persisted through long periods of time, but in which there was a party that was not partly right and partly wrong.
So in my above reply, I listed some disputes that persisted for long periods of time, but in which there was (or is) a party that was not partly right and partly wrong.
Still, I think there’s something to the idea that if there is a genuine debate about some claim that lasts a long time, then there might well be some truth on either side. So perhaps Russell was wrong to universally quantify over “debates” (as your counterexamples might show), but I think there is something to the claim.
Sorry I’m new. I don’t understand. What do you mean?
Um, so the ” ’d ” suggests that something has been affected by a noun.
In this case, the statement “every disputant is partly right and partly wrong” is affected by generalization. In that it is, er, a false generalization.
What do you mean “the statement is affected by a generalisation”? What does it mean for something to be “affected by a generalisation”? What does it mean for a statement to be “affected”?
The claim is a general one. Are general claims always false? I highly doubt that. That said, this generalisation might be false, but it seems like establishing that would require more than just pointing out that the claim is general.
Right. So calling it a “false generalization” needed two words.
Anyhow: Where does the sun go at night? How big is the earth? Is it harmful to market cigarettes to teenagers? Is Fermat’s last theorem true? Can you square the circle? Will heathens burn in hell for all eternity?
Er. What? You can call it a false generalisation all you like, that isn’t in itself enough to convince me it is false. (It may well be false, that’s not what’s at stake here). You seem to be suggesting that merely by calling it a generalisation is enough to impugn its status.
And in homage to your unconvential arguing style, here are some non sequituurs: How many angels can dance on the head of a pin? Did Thomas Aquinas prefer red wine or white wine? Was Stalin lefthanded? What colour were Sherlock Holmes’ eyes?
Suppose that I wanted to demonstrate conclusively that a generalization was false. I would have to provide one or more counterexamples. What sort of thing would be a counterexample to the claim “each party to all disputes that persist through long periods of time is partly right and partly wrong?” Well, it would have to be a dispute that persisted through long periods of time, but in which there was a party that was not partly right and partly wrong.
So in my above reply, I listed some disputes that persisted for long periods of time, but in which there was (or is) a party that was not partly right and partly wrong.
Ah I see now. Glad we cleared that up.
Still, I think there’s something to the idea that if there is a genuine debate about some claim that lasts a long time, then there might well be some truth on either side. So perhaps Russell was wrong to universally quantify over “debates” (as your counterexamples might show), but I think there is something to the claim.