Reviewing my post and the OP I realize it was never technically stated that the result only holds for idealized rationalists.
But of course that was implied. I don’t THINK that’s it, but it might have been.
Reviewing my post and the OP I realize it was never technically stated that the result only holds for idealized rationalists.
But of course that was implied. I don’t THINK that’s it, but it might have been.