Accordingly, it is possible in principle (as I have already said more than once in this discussion) that there might be male/female differences that are either really huge, or highly relevant to scientific competence but startlingly uncorrelated with all the information provided to the faculty in this study
Do I believe that Americans are generally more intelligent than Europeans? No, I don’t. At the same time in the LW census the average American has somthing like a 10 point higher IQ. In the data set there a strong correlation.
I think the intuition that the factor of the name should be zero is wrong even if there no causal effect because gender simply interacts in complex ways with many other things. I’m not sure in what direction the factor is going to correct, which might also be different in different situations but assuming that it contains no information at all doesn’t seem to be right.
I just grabbed the latest LW survey data I could find, selected (1) rows with “United States” as country and something other than a null for IQ and (2) all rows with something other than a null for IQ. (Note that this doesn’t include any sort of selection on the basis of reliability of IQ score.) I got means of 138.3 for the larger dataset (472 numbers, stddev=13.6) and 140.7 for the smaller (249 numbers, stddev=13.5). I wouldn’t call that “something like a 10 point higher IQ”.
the intuition that the factor of the name should be zero
What intuition that it should be zero? The question is whether it should be very large, not whether it should be exactly zero.
I’ve already explained why the difference would need to be very large for these results to be correctly explained by saying that the rating faculty made accurate allowance for real male/female competence differences. If you missed that, or you think I got it wrong, or it didn’t make sense, do let me know.
Do I believe that Americans are generally more intelligent than Europeans? No, I don’t. At the same time in the LW census the average American has somthing like a 10 point higher IQ. In the data set there a strong correlation.
I think the intuition that the factor of the name should be zero is wrong even if there no causal effect because gender simply interacts in complex ways with many other things. I’m not sure in what direction the factor is going to correct, which might also be different in different situations but assuming that it contains no information at all doesn’t seem to be right.
I just grabbed the latest LW survey data I could find, selected (1) rows with “United States” as country and something other than a null for IQ and (2) all rows with something other than a null for IQ. (Note that this doesn’t include any sort of selection on the basis of reliability of IQ score.) I got means of 138.3 for the larger dataset (472 numbers, stddev=13.6) and 140.7 for the smaller (249 numbers, stddev=13.5). I wouldn’t call that “something like a 10 point higher IQ”.
What intuition that it should be zero? The question is whether it should be very large, not whether it should be exactly zero.
I’ve already explained why the difference would need to be very large for these results to be correctly explained by saying that the rating faculty made accurate allowance for real male/female competence differences. If you missed that, or you think I got it wrong, or it didn’t make sense, do let me know.