Now that I believe I understand the point you were making, I think you are making an interesting distinction (or one whose non-existence is, itself, interesting). I think that labeling this “objective” vs. “subjective” is confusing. Generally, I think of “subjective” as “a function of the observer”, and objective as “a function of the observed”; two different observers in the same universe should derive the same laws, right?
I agree that A priori / a posteriori is not the same distinction as the objective / subjective distinction. But a priori truth is objective (i.e. universalizable). In ordinary circumstances, most empirically based statements are also objective. But I’m not sure that’s true in very unusual circumstances. Maybe I’m excessively influenced by all the hard sci-fi that says physics inside a black hole does not correspond well to physics in “normal” conditions.
In my head, this is the alien problem. [Assuming aliens exist,] the different environment extraterrestrial intelligent aliens evolved in mean that there’s no reason to think they experience the world anything like humans. No common moral precepts, and probably no communication possible at all. In short, I think it very plausible that aliens are so different that we can’t even say, “Let’s avoid each other.” (p > .4)
If aliens are that different, I’m not sure what exactly it means to assert that we have the same physics as the aliens. But I still think it makes sense to say that we have the same math because mathematics statements are prior to experience.
Now that I believe I understand the point you were making, I think you are making an interesting distinction (or one whose non-existence is, itself, interesting). I think that labeling this “objective” vs. “subjective” is confusing. Generally, I think of “subjective” as “a function of the observer”, and objective as “a function of the observed”; two different observers in the same universe should derive the same laws, right?
I agree that A priori / a posteriori is not the same distinction as the objective / subjective distinction. But a priori truth is objective (i.e. universalizable). In ordinary circumstances, most empirically based statements are also objective. But I’m not sure that’s true in very unusual circumstances. Maybe I’m excessively influenced by all the hard sci-fi that says physics inside a black hole does not correspond well to physics in “normal” conditions.
In my head, this is the alien problem. [Assuming aliens exist,] the different environment extraterrestrial intelligent aliens evolved in mean that there’s no reason to think they experience the world anything like humans. No common moral precepts, and probably no communication possible at all. In short, I think it very plausible that aliens are so different that we can’t even say, “Let’s avoid each other.” (p > .4)
If aliens are that different, I’m not sure what exactly it means to assert that we have the same physics as the aliens. But I still think it makes sense to say that we have the same math because mathematics statements are prior to experience.