In principle, a Cartesian skeptic should be able generate the same map of “Math” that we use. In contrast, there is no reason that a Cartesian skeptic’s map of Physics would have any resemblance to the territory at all. (I accept that it is hard to see what could motivate a Cartesian skeptic to generate Math).
I am not convinced this is the case. How do we pick which axioms to use, except by comparison to reality? Certainly, this is how it historically happened.
After describing all possible physics models, the skeptic still has no idea which is right.
In contrast, all the math articulated is right. (There are probably some caveats I should make, like no inconsistent axioms, and some reference to Godel, but I suspect I don’t know enough actual math to make all the necessary caveats).
I am not convinced this is the case. How do we pick which axioms to use, except by comparison to reality? Certainly, this is how it historically happened.
What can’t the skeptic say “If you accept the Axiom of Choice, here’s what follows. If you reject the Axiom of Choice, this follows instead.”
And you are right that I misused the map/territory metaphor.
Why can’t the skeptic similarly say, “If you accept that there is a particle at..., here is what follows; otherwise, this follows instead”?
After describing all possible physics models, the skeptic still has no idea which is right.
In contrast, all the math articulated is right. (There are probably some caveats I should make, like no inconsistent axioms, and some reference to Godel, but I suspect I don’t know enough actual math to make all the necessary caveats).
I am not certain that the same objection cannot be made to math, but I at least follow what your objection is.