I don’t understand what you mean. Harry believes she was FMC’d into obsessing over Draco and believing he was plotting to kill her. That’s quite sufficient to drive her to murder, without it actually being her fault.
A big deal has been made about Hermione’s innocence; i.e. Harry’s extensive thoughts on the Milgram experiment after Azkaban. The implication seems to me to be that no, that is definitively NOT sufficient to drive her to murder; in fact, nothing would be sufficient to drive her to murder.
He also believes that performing the Blood-Cooling Charm was a false memory. (At least that’s how I understand the following quotes from ch. 79.) I’ll admit however, that the evidence is not as clear as I thought, when I wrote the previous comment.
“Draco didn’t do anything, Hermione didn’t do anything, they were both False-Memory-Charmed!” Harry Potter’s voice had been rising on the last words. “How is that not BLOODY OBVIOUS?”
[…]
“Ah!” Harry said suddenly. “I get it now. The first False Memory Charm was cast on Hermione after Professor Snape yelled at her, and showed, say, Draco and Professor Snape plotting to kill her. Then last night that False Memory was removed by Obliviation, leaving behind the memories of her obsessing about Draco for no apparent reason, at the same time she and Draco were given false memories of the duel.”
Oh, you’re right, I misremembered Harry’s proposed scenario in the second quote.
Yeah, on balance I think that the duel actually happened and Harry’s suggested second round of FMCs is unnecessary- that just comes down to Harry not being willing to believe that Hermione is capable of cold-blooded (ha) murder, even in that state of mind.
If it were, one could argue that Harry’s certainty re: the false-memory charm deliberately fools the reader.
I don’t understand what you mean. Harry believes she was FMC’d into obsessing over Draco and believing he was plotting to kill her. That’s quite sufficient to drive her to murder, without it actually being her fault.
A big deal has been made about Hermione’s innocence; i.e. Harry’s extensive thoughts on the Milgram experiment after Azkaban. The implication seems to me to be that no, that is definitively NOT sufficient to drive her to murder; in fact, nothing would be sufficient to drive her to murder.
I guess Harry is sure of this fact due to his infallible power to know the hearts of men (and little girls).
I think Harry’s wrong about that, is what I’m saying.
He also believes that performing the Blood-Cooling Charm was a false memory. (At least that’s how I understand the following quotes from ch. 79.) I’ll admit however, that the evidence is not as clear as I thought, when I wrote the previous comment.
[…]
Oh, you’re right, I misremembered Harry’s proposed scenario in the second quote.
Yeah, on balance I think that the duel actually happened and Harry’s suggested second round of FMCs is unnecessary- that just comes down to Harry not being willing to believe that Hermione is capable of cold-blooded (ha) murder, even in that state of mind.
To be honest, I doubt she is.