The terms “valid” and “invalid” have a precise logical meaning; that is the meaning Jayson_Virissimo intends, as they have said many times now.
I have no problem parsing Jayson’s claims. I would even repeat them if I wanted to guess the password of my highschool math teacher. However it is my assertion that the precise logical meaning has been applied incorrectly in this context. The problem is one of applying basic knowledge about logic without knowing enough about how to reason logically about probability.
As you are using them, you seem to mean “well-grounded, justifiable, effective, appropriate, and etc.”
That’s not the case? I’m surprised. I apologize for having misinterpreting you, but that really did seem to be what you were saying.
My claim, as unambiguous as I can make it, is that probabilistic arguments of the form presented here are valid such that to reject the conclusion but not one of the premises is it be inconsistent. I did not expect it to be a controversial claim to make in this context.
I don’t think it’s a question of “insufficient effort” really—the claim you made in this post was simply incorrect, and then you acted condescending towards people who didn’t “understand” it. This post seems to include a valid argument, but it’s a different type of argument from the ones you were talking about earlier in the thread.
This post seems to include a valid argument, but it’s a different type of argument from the ones you were talking about earlier in the thread.
That post is approximately the same argument as the one you consider incorrect. The first instance just didn’t make the reduction to “logical reasoning about probabilities” sufficiently explicit and used too much potentially ambiguous language.
I doubt tabooing the term “valid” would have helped. In my first reply to wedrifid I gave an explicit definition, a link to said definition (which includes citations), and an example. What more could you ask for?
It has generally been my experience, when a term proves problematic in discussion, that providing my definition for that term doesn’t work as well as either (a) agreeing to use the other person’s definition, when I understand it well enough to do so, or (b) not using the term.
The terms “valid” and “invalid” have a precise logical meaning; that is the meaning Jayson_Virissimo intends, as they have said many times now.
As you are using them, you seem to mean “well-grounded, justifiable, effective, appropriate, and etc.”
Really this all could have been avoided if you all had just taboo’d the offending terms.
I have no problem parsing Jayson’s claims. I would even repeat them if I wanted to guess the password of my highschool math teacher. However it is my assertion that the precise logical meaning has been applied incorrectly in this context. The problem is one of applying basic knowledge about logic without knowing enough about how to reason logically about probability.
That isn’t actually the case.
That’s not the case? I’m surprised. I apologize for having misinterpreting you, but that really did seem to be what you were saying.
My claim, as unambiguous as I can make it, is that probabilistic arguments of the form presented here are valid such that to reject the conclusion but not one of the premises is it be inconsistent. I did not expect it to be a controversial claim to make in this context.
I don’t think it’s a question of “insufficient effort” really—the claim you made in this post was simply incorrect, and then you acted condescending towards people who didn’t “understand” it. This post seems to include a valid argument, but it’s a different type of argument from the ones you were talking about earlier in the thread.
See my reply to you in that context.
That post is approximately the same argument as the one you consider incorrect. The first instance just didn’t make the reduction to “logical reasoning about probabilities” sufficiently explicit and used too much potentially ambiguous language.
I doubt tabooing the term “valid” would have helped. In my first reply to wedrifid I gave an explicit definition, a link to said definition (which includes citations), and an example. What more could you ask for?
It has generally been my experience, when a term proves problematic in discussion, that providing my definition for that term doesn’t work as well as either (a) agreeing to use the other person’s definition, when I understand it well enough to do so, or (b) not using the term.
Is your experience different?
And please see here for the most relevant reply (to a comment declaring an equivalent definition.)