You can measure misogynist tendencies with an implicit association tests. Misogynist tendencies are something real that you can measure in the lab. The test doesn’t care about whether you can provide some intellectual justification for your observations.
So by that definition it’s perfectly possible for lack of “misogynist tendencies” to constitute a bias.
So by that definition it’s perfectly possible for lack of “misogynist tendencies” to constitute a bias.