I wonder if anyone else thinks that calling a non-violent sexual encounter with a person who is too intoxicated to properly consent a “rape” is a non-central fallacy?
This is a pretty valid point—as I mentioned earlier, there are multiple ways that consent can be violated, and lumping them all under the rubrick of “rape” makes it very difficult to discuss their causal makeup, or their actual utilitarian impact.
Yep.
This is a pretty valid point—as I mentioned earlier, there are multiple ways that consent can be violated, and lumping them all under the rubrick of “rape” makes it very difficult to discuss their causal makeup, or their actual utilitarian impact.