[deleted] comments on A Problem with Human Intuition about Conventional Statistics:

[deleted] 21 Apr 2011 16:43 UTC
4 points
Conditional probabilities are allowed to be 100%, because they are probability ratios. In particular, P(A|A) is 100% by definition.
- Kai-o-logos 21 Apr 2011 17:18 UTC
  −2 points
  Parent
  But P(E|D) is not 100% by any definition. Conditional probabilities are only 100% if
  
  D-->E. And if that was true, why does this argument exist?