If the physics map doesn’t imply the mind map (because of the zombie argument, the Mary’s room argument, etc.), then how do you come to know about the mind map?
Direct evidence. That’s the starting point of the whole thing. People think that they have qualia because it seems to them that they do.
Edit: In fact, it’s the other way round: we are always using the mind map, but we remove the subjectivity, “warm fuzzies” from it to arrive at the physics map. Ho wdo we know that physics is the whole story, when we start with our experience, and make a subset of it?
What is the version of this story for the mind map, once we assume that the mind map has contents that have no causal effect on the physical world?
I’m not assuming that. I’m arguing against epiphenomenalism.
So I am saying that the mental is causal, but I am not saying that it is a kind of physical causality, as per reductive physicalism. Reductive physicalism is false because consciousness is irreducible, as you agree. Since mental causation isn’t a kind of physical causation, I don’t have to give a physical account if it.
And I am further not saying that the physical and mental are two separate ontologcal domains, two separate territories. I am talking about maps, not territories.
Without ontological dualism, there are no issues of overdetermination or interaction.
Direct evidence. That’s the starting point of the whole thing. People think that they have qualia because it seems to them that they do.
Edit: In fact, it’s the other way round: we are always using the mind map, but we remove the subjectivity, “warm fuzzies” from it to arrive at the physics map. Ho wdo we know that physics is the whole story, when we start with our experience, and make a subset of it?
I’m not assuming that. I’m arguing against epiphenomenalism.
So I am saying that the mental is causal, but I am not saying that it is a kind of physical causality, as per reductive physicalism. Reductive physicalism is false because consciousness is irreducible, as you agree. Since mental causation isn’t a kind of physical causation, I don’t have to give a physical account if it.
And I am further not saying that the physical and mental are two separate ontologcal domains, two separate territories. I am talking about maps, not territories.
Without ontological dualism, there are no issues of overdetermination or interaction.