What is progress with respect to either? Could you possibly mean that moral states—the moral conditions of a society—follow from the economic state—the condition and system of economy. I do find it hard to see a clear, unbiased definition of moral or economic progress.
Moral progress is a trend or change for the better in the morality of members of a society. For example, when the United States went from widespread acceptance of slavery to widespread rejection of slavery, that was moral progress on most views of morality.
Economic progress is a trend or change that results in increased wealth for a society.
In general, widespread acceptance of a moral principle, like our views on slavery, animal rights, vegetable rights, and universal minimum income, only comes after we can afford it.
I think he’s trying to say that having resources is a prerequisite to spending them on moral things like universal pay, so we need to pursue wealth if we want to pursue morality. Technically, economic progress is more of a prerequisite to moral progress than a sufficient cause though, as economic progress can also result in bad moral outcomes depending on what we do with our wealth.
What is moral progress? - Is having a society with a vast disparity between rich and poor where the poor support the rich through the resource of their labor considered morally progressed from a more egalitarian tribal state? Is the progress of the empire to a point of collapse and the start of some new empire considered moral progress?
What is economic progress? - Is having a society with a vast disparity between rich and poor where the poor support the rich through the resource of their labor considered morally progressed from the primitive hunter-gatherer society where everyone had more free time considered economic progress? Is the progress of the empire to a point where the disparity in wealth incites revolution or causes collapse considered economic progress?
The points you raise are not responsive to the points that either he or I made.
If it increases total aggregate utility. Tribes were small, there weren’t very many people. I’m also not sure how happy most tribes were. Additionally, bad moral societies might be necessary to transition to awesome ones.
You conflate moral and economic progress in your second paragraph.
A financial system which collapses probably isn’t too healthy. It still might have improved things overall through its pre-collapse operations though.
My first reaction is to want to say that economic progress is an increase in purchasing power. However, purchasing power is measured with reference to the utility of goods. That would be fine as a solution, except that those definitions would mean that it would be literally impossible for an increase in economic progress to be bad on utilitarian grounds. That’s not what “economic progress” is generally taken to mean, so I won’t use that definition.
Instead, I’ll say that economic progress is an increase in the ability to produce goods, whether those goods are good or bad. This increase can be either numerical or qualitative, I don’t care. Now, it might not be possible to quantify this precisely, but that’s not necessary to determine that economic progress occurs. Clearly, we are now farther economically progressed than we were in the Dark Ages.
Moral progress would be measured depending on the moral theory you’re utilizing. I would use a broad sort of egoism, personally, but most people here would use utilitarianism.
With an egoist framework, you could keep track of how happy or sad you were directly. You could also measure the prevalence of factors that tend to make you happy and then subtract the prevalence of factors that tend to make you sad (while weighting for relative amounts of happiness and sadness, of course), in order to get a more objective account of your own happiness.
With a utilitarian framework, you would measure the prevalence of things that tend to make all people happy, and then subtract the prevalence of things that tend to make all people sad. If there was an increase in the number of happy people, then that would mean moral progress in the eyes of a utilitarian.
You make no argument. You merely ask a question. If you have a general counterargument or want to refute the specifics of any of my points, feel free. So far, you haven’t done anything like that. Also, although it might not be possible to quantify economic or moral progress precisely, we can probably do it well enough for most practical purposes. I don’t understand the purpose of the points you’re trying to raise here.
I think he’s trying to say …. we need to pursue wealth if we want to pursue morality. …. economic progress can also result in bad moral outcomes depending on what we do with our wealth.
You do not like the questions, the Socratic? Ok, I asserted the basis of the argument and the point of the questions:
A clear, unbiased definition of moral or economic progress does not exist.
You present models for deciding both. There exists models where economic progress varies inversely with moral progress, such as possible outcomes from the utilitarian perspective that are covered in ethics 101 at most colleges, and the manifest reality of a system where economic progress has been used for justifying an abundance of atrocities. There also exist models in either category which define progress in entirely different directions and so any statement of progress is inherently biased.
There is a link between economic states/systems and moral conditions, and it appeared that the author of the statement: “Moral progress proceeds from economic progress.” may have been oversimplifying the issue to a point of of making it unintelligible.
You mentioned wealth which implies an inherent bias also. I can personally assert a different version of wealth which excludes much of what most people consider wealth. If most people think wealth includes assets like cash or gold which I see as having an immoral nature and so their idea of accumulating wealth is immoral in my pov. (I do not include a lengthy moral case, but rather assert such a case exists). So if you see progress and wealth as interrelated then I would ask for a definition of wealth?
You also assert that economic progress is an increased ability to produce goods. I assert that there are many modes of production of which the current industrial mode finds value in quantity, as you state is the measure. Two biases arise:
1 - The bias inherent to the mode: quantity is not the only measure of progress. Competing values include quality in aesthetics, ergonomics, environmental impact, functionality, modular in use (consider open source values). I do not think having more stuff is a sign of economic progress and I am not alone in finding that the measure you have asserted says nothing of “progress”—you of course argue differently and thus we can say one measure or another of progress may differ and are thus inherently biased.
2- What mode of production is more progressed? I do not think industrialization is progress. I see many flaws in the results. Too much damage from that mode imho. I am not here to argue that position but rather to assert it exists.
Is my point about the bias inherent in describing progress clear, or do you think that there exists some definition we all agree upon as to what progress in any area is?
You say that economic production and moral progress aren’t the same. I have already said the same thing; I have already said that increased economic production might lead to morally wrong outcomes depending on how those products end up being used.
You can assert a different definition of wealth if you want, sure. I don’t understand what argument this is supposed to be responsive to. There’s a common understanding of wealth and just because different people define wealth differently, that wouldn’t invalidate my point. Having resources is key to investing them, investing resources is key to doing moral things.
You say that quantity isn’t the sole realm of value. I think that’s true. But if you take the quantity of goods and multiply them by the quality of goods (that is, the utility of the goods, like I mentioned before) then that is a sufficient definition of total economic value.
The mode of production that is most progressed is the one which produces the most.
What is progress with respect to either? Could you possibly mean that moral states—the moral conditions of a society—follow from the economic state—the condition and system of economy. I do find it hard to see a clear, unbiased definition of moral or economic progress.
Moral progress is a trend or change for the better in the morality of members of a society. For example, when the United States went from widespread acceptance of slavery to widespread rejection of slavery, that was moral progress on most views of morality.
Economic progress is a trend or change that results in increased wealth for a society.
In general, widespread acceptance of a moral principle, like our views on slavery, animal rights, vegetable rights, and universal minimum income, only comes after we can afford it.
I think he’s trying to say that having resources is a prerequisite to spending them on moral things like universal pay, so we need to pursue wealth if we want to pursue morality. Technically, economic progress is more of a prerequisite to moral progress than a sufficient cause though, as economic progress can also result in bad moral outcomes depending on what we do with our wealth.
What is moral progress? - Is having a society with a vast disparity between rich and poor where the poor support the rich through the resource of their labor considered morally progressed from a more egalitarian tribal state? Is the progress of the empire to a point of collapse and the start of some new empire considered moral progress?
What is economic progress? - Is having a society with a vast disparity between rich and poor where the poor support the rich through the resource of their labor considered morally progressed from the primitive hunter-gatherer society where everyone had more free time considered economic progress? Is the progress of the empire to a point where the disparity in wealth incites revolution or causes collapse considered economic progress?
You’re not making arguments.
The points you raise are not responsive to the points that either he or I made.
If it increases total aggregate utility. Tribes were small, there weren’t very many people. I’m also not sure how happy most tribes were. Additionally, bad moral societies might be necessary to transition to awesome ones.
You conflate moral and economic progress in your second paragraph.
A financial system which collapses probably isn’t too healthy. It still might have improved things overall through its pre-collapse operations though.
Universal pay does not even seem possible now.
You do not answer the question and conflate the questions
How is economic progress measured—if you say the aggraegate utility please explain how that is measured.?
How is moral progress measured?
My argument is simple—the measure of either of these is based on poor heuristics.
My first reaction is to want to say that economic progress is an increase in purchasing power. However, purchasing power is measured with reference to the utility of goods. That would be fine as a solution, except that those definitions would mean that it would be literally impossible for an increase in economic progress to be bad on utilitarian grounds. That’s not what “economic progress” is generally taken to mean, so I won’t use that definition.
Instead, I’ll say that economic progress is an increase in the ability to produce goods, whether those goods are good or bad. This increase can be either numerical or qualitative, I don’t care. Now, it might not be possible to quantify this precisely, but that’s not necessary to determine that economic progress occurs. Clearly, we are now farther economically progressed than we were in the Dark Ages.
Moral progress would be measured depending on the moral theory you’re utilizing. I would use a broad sort of egoism, personally, but most people here would use utilitarianism.
With an egoist framework, you could keep track of how happy or sad you were directly. You could also measure the prevalence of factors that tend to make you happy and then subtract the prevalence of factors that tend to make you sad (while weighting for relative amounts of happiness and sadness, of course), in order to get a more objective account of your own happiness.
With a utilitarian framework, you would measure the prevalence of things that tend to make all people happy, and then subtract the prevalence of things that tend to make all people sad. If there was an increase in the number of happy people, then that would mean moral progress in the eyes of a utilitarian.
You make no argument. You merely ask a question. If you have a general counterargument or want to refute the specifics of any of my points, feel free. So far, you haven’t done anything like that. Also, although it might not be possible to quantify economic or moral progress precisely, we can probably do it well enough for most practical purposes. I don’t understand the purpose of the points you’re trying to raise here.
My original post refuted the statement:
You interjected:
You do not like the questions, the Socratic? Ok, I asserted the basis of the argument and the point of the questions:
A clear, unbiased definition of moral or economic progress does not exist.
You present models for deciding both. There exists models where economic progress varies inversely with moral progress, such as possible outcomes from the utilitarian perspective that are covered in ethics 101 at most colleges, and the manifest reality of a system where economic progress has been used for justifying an abundance of atrocities. There also exist models in either category which define progress in entirely different directions and so any statement of progress is inherently biased.
There is a link between economic states/systems and moral conditions, and it appeared that the author of the statement: “Moral progress proceeds from economic progress.” may have been oversimplifying the issue to a point of of making it unintelligible.
You mentioned wealth which implies an inherent bias also. I can personally assert a different version of wealth which excludes much of what most people consider wealth. If most people think wealth includes assets like cash or gold which I see as having an immoral nature and so their idea of accumulating wealth is immoral in my pov. (I do not include a lengthy moral case, but rather assert such a case exists). So if you see progress and wealth as interrelated then I would ask for a definition of wealth?
You also assert that economic progress is an increased ability to produce goods. I assert that there are many modes of production of which the current industrial mode finds value in quantity, as you state is the measure. Two biases arise:
1 - The bias inherent to the mode: quantity is not the only measure of progress. Competing values include quality in aesthetics, ergonomics, environmental impact, functionality, modular in use (consider open source values). I do not think having more stuff is a sign of economic progress and I am not alone in finding that the measure you have asserted says nothing of “progress”—you of course argue differently and thus we can say one measure or another of progress may differ and are thus inherently biased.
2- What mode of production is more progressed? I do not think industrialization is progress. I see many flaws in the results. Too much damage from that mode imho. I am not here to argue that position but rather to assert it exists.
Is my point about the bias inherent in describing progress clear, or do you think that there exists some definition we all agree upon as to what progress in any area is?
You say that economic production and moral progress aren’t the same. I have already said the same thing; I have already said that increased economic production might lead to morally wrong outcomes depending on how those products end up being used.
You can assert a different definition of wealth if you want, sure. I don’t understand what argument this is supposed to be responsive to. There’s a common understanding of wealth and just because different people define wealth differently, that wouldn’t invalidate my point. Having resources is key to investing them, investing resources is key to doing moral things.
You say that quantity isn’t the sole realm of value. I think that’s true. But if you take the quantity of goods and multiply them by the quality of goods (that is, the utility of the goods, like I mentioned before) then that is a sufficient definition of total economic value.
The mode of production that is most progressed is the one which produces the most.