These conclusions must,by definition, be logically implied by the original hypothetical or nobody would be able to make them, so you can describe them as being equivalent to P.
Of course it’s a misleading description, that’s my point. RK said that OW’s post was “Suppose P would be true? Then P would be true!” His reason for saying that, as far as I could tell, is that the conclusions of the hypothetical were logically implied by the hypothetical. I don’t buy that.
But that would be a misleading description.
Of course it’s a misleading description, that’s my point. RK said that OW’s post was “Suppose P would be true? Then P would be true!” His reason for saying that, as far as I could tell, is that the conclusions of the hypothetical were logically implied by the hypothetical. I don’t buy that.