I still don’t know why everyone thinks this is the problem of induction.
It’s similar to Hume’s philosophical problem of induction (here and here specifically). Induction in this sense is contrasted with deduction—you could certainly have a Bayesian agent which doesn’t use induction (never draws a generalisation from specific observations) but I think it would necessarily be less efficient and less effective than a Bayesian agent that did.
If you like, I’ll link to your comment in my top-level comment.
Feel free! I am all for increasing the number of minds churning away at this problem—the more Bayesians that are trying to find a way to justify Bayesian methods, the higher the probability that a correct justification will occur. Assuming we can weed out the motivated or biased justifications.
It’s similar to Hume’s philosophical problem of induction (here and here specifically). Induction in this sense is contrasted with deduction—you could certainly have a Bayesian agent which doesn’t use induction (never draws a generalisation from specific observations) but I think it would necessarily be less efficient and less effective than a Bayesian agent that did.
Feel free! I am all for increasing the number of minds churning away at this problem—the more Bayesians that are trying to find a way to justify Bayesian methods, the higher the probability that a correct justification will occur. Assuming we can weed out the motivated or biased justifications.