I think you are making a category error. If something makes claims about phenomena that can be proved/disproved with evidence in the world, it’s science, not philosophy.
So the question is whether philosophy’s position as meta to science and everything else can provide utility. I’ve found it useful, YMMV.
BTW here is the latest round of Heideggerian critique of AI (pdf) which, again, you may or may not find useful.
I think you are making a category error. If something makes claims about phenomena that can be proved/disproved with evidence in the world, it’s science, not philosophy.
Hmm.. I suspect the phrasing “evidence/phenomena in the world” might give my assertion an overly mechanistic sound to it. I don’t mean verifiable/disprovable physical/atomistic facts must be cited—that would be begging the question. I just mean any meaningful argument must make reference to evidence that can be pointed to in support of/ in criticism of the given argument. Note that “evidence” doesn’t exclude “mental phenomena.” If we don’t ask that philosophy cite evidence, what distinguishes it from meaningless nonsense, or fiction?
I’m trying to write a more thorough response to your statement, but I’m finding it really difficult without the use of an example. Can you cite some claim of Heidegger’s or Hegel’s that you would assert is meaningful, but does not spring out of an argument based on empirical evidence? Maybe then I can respond more cogently.
I’m not at all a fan of Hegel, and Heidegger I don’t really understand, but I linked to a paper that describes the interaction of Heideggerian philosophy and AI which might answer your question.
I still think you don’t have your categories straight. Philosophy does not make “claims” that are proved or disproved by evidence (although there is a relatively new subfield called “experimental philosophy”). Think of it as providing alternate points of view.
To illustrate: your idea that the only valid utterances are those that are supported by empirical evidence is a philosophy. That philosophy itself can’t be supported by empirical evidence; it rests on something else.
That philosophy itself can’t be supported by empirical evidence; it rests on something else.
Right, and I’m asking you what you think that “something else” is.
I’d also re-assert my challenge to you: if philosophy’s arguments don’t rest on some evidence of some kind, what distinguishes it from nonsense/fiction?
Right, and I’m asking you what you think that “something else” is.
Hell, how would I know? Let’s say “thinking” for the sake of argument.
I’d also re-assert my challenge to you: if philosophy’s arguments don’t rest on some evidence of some kind, what distinguishes it from nonsense/fiction?
People think it makes sense.
“Definitions may be given in this way of any field where a body of definite knowledge exists. But philosophy cannot be so defined. Any definition is controversial and already embodies a philosophic attitude. The only way to find out what philosophy is, is to do philosophy.” -- Bertrand Russell
I think you are making a category error. If something makes claims about phenomena that can be proved/disproved with evidence in the world, it’s science, not philosophy.
So the question is whether philosophy’s position as meta to science and everything else can provide utility. I’ve found it useful, YMMV.
BTW here is the latest round of Heideggerian critique of AI (pdf) which, again, you may or may not find useful.
Hmm.. I suspect the phrasing “evidence/phenomena in the world” might give my assertion an overly mechanistic sound to it. I don’t mean verifiable/disprovable physical/atomistic facts must be cited—that would be begging the question. I just mean any meaningful argument must make reference to evidence that can be pointed to in support of/ in criticism of the given argument. Note that “evidence” doesn’t exclude “mental phenomena.” If we don’t ask that philosophy cite evidence, what distinguishes it from meaningless nonsense, or fiction?
I’m trying to write a more thorough response to your statement, but I’m finding it really difficult without the use of an example. Can you cite some claim of Heidegger’s or Hegel’s that you would assert is meaningful, but does not spring out of an argument based on empirical evidence? Maybe then I can respond more cogently.
Unless you think the “Heideggerian critique of AI” is a good example. In which case I can engage that.
I’m not at all a fan of Hegel, and Heidegger I don’t really understand, but I linked to a paper that describes the interaction of Heideggerian philosophy and AI which might answer your question.
I still think you don’t have your categories straight. Philosophy does not make “claims” that are proved or disproved by evidence (although there is a relatively new subfield called “experimental philosophy”). Think of it as providing alternate points of view.
To illustrate: your idea that the only valid utterances are those that are supported by empirical evidence is a philosophy. That philosophy itself can’t be supported by empirical evidence; it rests on something else.
Right, and I’m asking you what you think that “something else” is.
I’d also re-assert my challenge to you: if philosophy’s arguments don’t rest on some evidence of some kind, what distinguishes it from nonsense/fiction?
Hell, how would I know? Let’s say “thinking” for the sake of argument.
People think it makes sense.
“Definitions may be given in this way of any field where a body of definite knowledge exists. But philosophy cannot be so defined. Any definition is controversial and already embodies a philosophic attitude. The only way to find out what philosophy is, is to do philosophy.” -- Bertrand Russell