Do you recognize that you are saying something completely different from your original comment?
They look comparable to me. I still think that the factual claim “Only the US fought a war to abolish slavery” is incorrect, as is “Every other nation on Earth abolished it by government passing laws”. Writing down that the slave trade is illegal is one thing, the West Africa Squadron is another. (I didn’t explicitly raise the disagreement with “within a few generations” like buybuydandavis, but disagreement on that point is also strongly relevant, as I’ll get to in a bit.)
It seems best to start by disagreeing on facts, because those are easier to resolve.
In the second comment, I elaborated on why I disagree on interpretation as well as disagreeing on facts. This thread is about what governments got right, and so I am reluctant to say “governments got slavery right” without a clear arrow pointing from the existence of governments to the consequence of slavery being resolved correctly. What it looks like to me is that in the time after the kingship descended from heaven, continuing on to the present day, governments have actively encouraged and perpetuated slavery, with Britain in the 1800s as the primary outlier, primarily because of the actions of private British citizens in altering the direction of the British government, and (current politics warning) most governments today banning private slavery while maintaining their slavery.
One of the other reasons why I focused on disagreements of fact first is because the sense of history plays strongly into how claims generalize. I know some about the history of global abolition, which I’ll call V_H, but if someone else makes the claim “abolition is a sign of government competence” then I need to know what their history of abolition, T_H, looks like because I can guess what other things they’ll think are similar enough to abolition to also fit the claim that those things are signs of government competence. And if T_H didn’t actually happen, then that seems like evidence against government competence.
Let’s stick to factual disagreements. Did Britain forcibly end slavery? I say no, outside of Zanzibar. What do you say? I think that there’s a big difference between forcibly ending slavery and forcibly ending the slave trade. What do you think?
They look comparable to me. I still think that the factual claim “Only the US fought a war to abolish slavery” is incorrect, as is “Every other nation on Earth abolished it by government passing laws”. Writing down that the slave trade is illegal is one thing, the West Africa Squadron is another. (I didn’t explicitly raise the disagreement with “within a few generations” like buybuydandavis, but disagreement on that point is also strongly relevant, as I’ll get to in a bit.)
It seems best to start by disagreeing on facts, because those are easier to resolve.
In the second comment, I elaborated on why I disagree on interpretation as well as disagreeing on facts. This thread is about what governments got right, and so I am reluctant to say “governments got slavery right” without a clear arrow pointing from the existence of governments to the consequence of slavery being resolved correctly. What it looks like to me is that in the time after the kingship descended from heaven, continuing on to the present day, governments have actively encouraged and perpetuated slavery, with Britain in the 1800s as the primary outlier, primarily because of the actions of private British citizens in altering the direction of the British government, and (current politics warning) most governments today banning private slavery while maintaining their slavery.
One of the other reasons why I focused on disagreements of fact first is because the sense of history plays strongly into how claims generalize. I know some about the history of global abolition, which I’ll call V_H, but if someone else makes the claim “abolition is a sign of government competence” then I need to know what their history of abolition, T_H, looks like because I can guess what other things they’ll think are similar enough to abolition to also fit the claim that those things are signs of government competence. And if T_H didn’t actually happen, then that seems like evidence against government competence.
Let’s stick to factual disagreements. Did Britain forcibly end slavery? I say no, outside of Zanzibar. What do you say? I think that there’s a big difference between forcibly ending slavery and forcibly ending the slave trade. What do you think?