Do you to the first approximation equate moral progress with more equality?
I would consider it one form of such progress, yes.
EDIT:
If I persuade a racist all humans are people, have I changed his utility function?
That was a genuine question, incidentally. I really want to know your answer.
Can you taboo what you mean by a person’s utility function?
How they decide the relative desirability of a given situation.
Said procedure tends not to resemble a utility function.
Huh?
He gets disutility from people suffering. If Jews are people, then he shouldn’t torture them to death—but he didn’t suddenly decide to value Jews, just realised they are people.
Do you to the first approximation equate moral progress with more equality?
I would consider it one form of such progress, yes.
EDIT:
That was a genuine question, incidentally. I really want to know your answer.
Can you taboo what you mean by a person’s utility function?
How they decide the relative desirability of a given situation.
Said procedure tends not to resemble a utility function.
Huh?
He gets disutility from people suffering. If Jews are people, then he shouldn’t torture them to death—but he didn’t suddenly decide to value Jews, just realised they are people.